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I am a freelance programmer and often I will register a domain name for a client under a domain name reseller (and of course under my account).
I wanted to know if there is any standard procedure for selling the domain name to the client or just let them transfer it.
Does anyone know a normal procedure for this type of scenario?
If the domain name was purchased on behalf of the client, then it belong to the client and I would not charge them if they want to move the domain to a different registrar. It would not be ethical. I normally insert my name as technical contact only and leave the client as administrative contact, thereby indicating they are the owners.
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In my firm there are 5 PCs' Windows 10 updated and with Outlook 2013/2016 updated that successfully send e-mail (that is what Outlook shows), but they are not delivered to addresses that are not in their domain (See Example1). But it works as aspected in one PC, although it has the same network and e-mail configuration as the others. The e-mail is successfully sent if I use the brownser version of the email.
Exemple1: our e-mail domain is X, we successfuly send an email to an email in the domain X, but if we try to sendo to domain gmail.com it is not delivered, although Outlook says it was sent successfuly.
Thanks for any help!
I deleted and created again the e-mail account on Outlook, then it worked. Let's hope it doesn't happen again. I'll not post as finished because I'll test for a month and if it still works I'll finish this post.
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I have to WAN connected to mikrotik routerboard, named ppoe-WAN1 and ppoe-WAN2
I want to add simple load balancing to using tow internet connection for all lan users
the simplest way is that add new route with 2 gateway like image below,
Note that if before add this route you must delete all route with distance 1 that does not contains routing marks
and disable Add default Route from pope connections
Having two gateways for the same destination will just put the other in redundancy. It is better that you decide on one of the following:
1. Policy based routing (PBR)
2. Per connection classifier (PCC)
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So in my network I have the main domain controller and a backup domain controller. The backup domain controller has exchange on it.
The exchange services have been shut down as I have moved email hosting off site. So I now have no need of that backup domain controller that was running exchange. I want to shut it down for good.
What would be the proper way to remove it from its role in active directory and a backup domain controller?
Both domain controllers are Server 2008.
Thanks much!
Firstly, just don't do it, this is a SysAdmin SIN! Your shooting yourself in the foot. Even for my smallest customers with only 10 members of staff, I often have them purchase a second server to act as a secondary domain controller, DNS server, DHCP Server etc.
It is the first and few things Microsoft recommends as best practice when setting up a domain and one of the first things that is taught to you when you do the MCSA course: When creating a domain a secondary domain controller should be set up. If you have more than 20 Users its a must IMHO. Many things can go wrong and too many times clients have incurred big bills(man hours) because they didnt spend that extra £2000 on another server. I strongly recommend you keep it. It's not just availability, it prevents a large number of corruption issues which can linger for weeks before presenting themselves which makes 7x daily backups no help. It's your sefety net.
If you must get rid of it, first check is doesn't hold the FSMO roles and run dcpromo following the steps here: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc771844(v=ws.10).aspx
Lastly, your getting down-voted because StackOverflow only like coding qustions and they want you to use ServerFault which is part of the same family.
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I have configured the EC2 and Postfix with domain somedomain.com, and hostname mail.somedomain.com.
The system now can send, and receive email correctly, with just a problem.
When I reply email using the 'mail' command to my Gmail, the sent email has sender address "root#ip-xxx-xxx-xxx-xxx.us-west-2.compute.internal" instead of "root#somedomain.com". This long domain name can not be replied by my Gmail account.
Thanks.
Harry
The problem is solved by using the domain name generic mapping.
http://www.postfix.org/ADDRESS_REWRITING_README.html#generic
The above link describes how to do it.
But it is a temporary solution that replaces the lengthy internal domain (ip-xxx-xxx-xx-xxxx.us-west-2.compute.internal) by mydomain.com for every OUTGOING email.
For local email, the system still uses the lengthy internal domain name (ip-xxx-xxx-xx-xxxx.us-west-2.compute.internal)
The problem is: postfix seems to have bypassed the $mydomain, $myorigin, $myhost variable I set in the /etc/main.cf file.
If anyone can solve it, I will greatly appreciate it.
Harry
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There is Windows Server 2003 machine which has many users to access. Each of them want to configure their own hosts file to redirect a hostname to certain IP address. (They are virtual machines with same hostname and different IP addresses owned by each user.)
C:\WINDOWS\system32\drivers\etc\hosts
Also, we cannot simply ask users to use IP address to connect because the hostname is configured and need to be used in an application. Can we have this user specific hosts file configured or any workaround?
technically this is not possible...a simple programmatic work around could be to write a script and at user logon replace the file with whatever values you want.
since most of the changes in the hosts file are read at runtime, you should be able to achieve the result you are expecting