Closed. This question is not about programming or software development. It is not currently accepting answers.
This question does not appear to be about a specific programming problem, a software algorithm, or software tools primarily used by programmers. If you believe the question would be on-topic on another Stack Exchange site, you can leave a comment to explain where the question may be able to be answered.
Closed 3 months ago.
Improve this question
I have configured the EC2 and Postfix with domain somedomain.com, and hostname mail.somedomain.com.
The system now can send, and receive email correctly, with just a problem.
When I reply email using the 'mail' command to my Gmail, the sent email has sender address "root#ip-xxx-xxx-xxx-xxx.us-west-2.compute.internal" instead of "root#somedomain.com". This long domain name can not be replied by my Gmail account.
Thanks.
Harry
The problem is solved by using the domain name generic mapping.
http://www.postfix.org/ADDRESS_REWRITING_README.html#generic
The above link describes how to do it.
But it is a temporary solution that replaces the lengthy internal domain (ip-xxx-xxx-xx-xxxx.us-west-2.compute.internal) by mydomain.com for every OUTGOING email.
For local email, the system still uses the lengthy internal domain name (ip-xxx-xxx-xx-xxxx.us-west-2.compute.internal)
The problem is: postfix seems to have bypassed the $mydomain, $myorigin, $myhost variable I set in the /etc/main.cf file.
If anyone can solve it, I will greatly appreciate it.
Harry
Related
Closed. This question does not meet Stack Overflow guidelines. It is not currently accepting answers.
This question does not appear to be about a specific programming problem, a software algorithm, or software tools primarily used by programmers. If you believe the question would be on-topic on another Stack Exchange site, you can leave a comment to explain where the question may be able to be answered.
Closed 5 years ago.
Improve this question
In my firm there are 5 PCs' Windows 10 updated and with Outlook 2013/2016 updated that successfully send e-mail (that is what Outlook shows), but they are not delivered to addresses that are not in their domain (See Example1). But it works as aspected in one PC, although it has the same network and e-mail configuration as the others. The e-mail is successfully sent if I use the brownser version of the email.
Exemple1: our e-mail domain is X, we successfuly send an email to an email in the domain X, but if we try to sendo to domain gmail.com it is not delivered, although Outlook says it was sent successfuly.
Thanks for any help!
I deleted and created again the e-mail account on Outlook, then it worked. Let's hope it doesn't happen again. I'll not post as finished because I'll test for a month and if it still works I'll finish this post.
Closed. This question does not meet Stack Overflow guidelines. It is not currently accepting answers.
This question does not appear to be about a specific programming problem, a software algorithm, or software tools primarily used by programmers. If you believe the question would be on-topic on another Stack Exchange site, you can leave a comment to explain where the question may be able to be answered.
Closed 8 years ago.
Improve this question
So in my network I have the main domain controller and a backup domain controller. The backup domain controller has exchange on it.
The exchange services have been shut down as I have moved email hosting off site. So I now have no need of that backup domain controller that was running exchange. I want to shut it down for good.
What would be the proper way to remove it from its role in active directory and a backup domain controller?
Both domain controllers are Server 2008.
Thanks much!
Firstly, just don't do it, this is a SysAdmin SIN! Your shooting yourself in the foot. Even for my smallest customers with only 10 members of staff, I often have them purchase a second server to act as a secondary domain controller, DNS server, DHCP Server etc.
It is the first and few things Microsoft recommends as best practice when setting up a domain and one of the first things that is taught to you when you do the MCSA course: When creating a domain a secondary domain controller should be set up. If you have more than 20 Users its a must IMHO. Many things can go wrong and too many times clients have incurred big bills(man hours) because they didnt spend that extra £2000 on another server. I strongly recommend you keep it. It's not just availability, it prevents a large number of corruption issues which can linger for weeks before presenting themselves which makes 7x daily backups no help. It's your sefety net.
If you must get rid of it, first check is doesn't hold the FSMO roles and run dcpromo following the steps here: http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc771844(v=ws.10).aspx
Lastly, your getting down-voted because StackOverflow only like coding qustions and they want you to use ServerFault which is part of the same family.
Closed. This question does not meet Stack Overflow guidelines. It is not currently accepting answers.
Closed 8 years ago.
This question does not appear to be about a specific programming problem, a software algorithm, or software tools primarily used by programmers. If you believe the question would be on-topic on another Stack Exchange site, you can leave a comment to explain where the question may be able to be answered.
This question was caused by a typo or a problem that can no longer be reproduced. While similar questions may be on-topic here, this one was resolved in a way less likely to help future readers.
Improve this question
I want to point my custom domain to heroku.
My provider uses cPanel.
I have followed the instructions here.
https://devcenter.heroku.com/articles/custom-domains
And added this to my DNS Zone Editor
www.my-site.com. 14400 IN CNAME my-app.herokuapp.com
however it's been a day and my app still doesn't point to heroku.
It might be because there are several other records in the DNS
currently these are the records in my DNS.
I'm wondering what's wrong with my setup.
Do I have to remove the A record pointing to the IP address of the old server?
note: XX.XX.XX.XX = Old IP address
NAME----------------------------TTL-----------CLASS------TYPE--------RECORD
my-site.com.---------------------14400-----------IN------------A----------XX.XX.XX.XX
localhost.my-site.com.---------14400-----------IN------------A------------127.0.0.1
mail.my-site.com.---------------14400-----------IN-----------CNAME-----my-site.com
www.my-site.com.--------------14400 ------ ----IN---------- CNAME-----my-app.herokuapp.com
ftp.my-site.com.---------------- 14400------------IN----------CNAME-----my-site.com
webdisk.my-site.com.----------14400----------- IN----------A-------------XX.XX.XX.XX
autodiscover.my-site.com.--- 14400------------IN----------A-------------XX.XX.XX.XX
autoconfig.my-site.com.------14400------------ IN----------A-------------XX.XX.XX.XX
FIX: I fixed the problem by removing the A record pointing to the old server. Then it now points to my herokuapp. I tried to put the old A record back on and it still works now (don't know why) maybe it's a conflict on the provider's side
Closed. This question does not meet Stack Overflow guidelines. It is not currently accepting answers.
This question does not appear to be about a specific programming problem, a software algorithm, or software tools primarily used by programmers. If you believe the question would be on-topic on another Stack Exchange site, you can leave a comment to explain where the question may be able to be answered.
Closed 4 years ago.
Improve this question
There is Windows Server 2003 machine which has many users to access. Each of them want to configure their own hosts file to redirect a hostname to certain IP address. (They are virtual machines with same hostname and different IP addresses owned by each user.)
C:\WINDOWS\system32\drivers\etc\hosts
Also, we cannot simply ask users to use IP address to connect because the hostname is configured and need to be used in an application. Can we have this user specific hosts file configured or any workaround?
technically this is not possible...a simple programmatic work around could be to write a script and at user logon replace the file with whatever values you want.
since most of the changes in the hosts file are read at runtime, you should be able to achieve the result you are expecting
Closed. This question does not meet Stack Overflow guidelines. It is not currently accepting answers.
This question does not appear to be about a specific programming problem, a software algorithm, or software tools primarily used by programmers. If you believe the question would be on-topic on another Stack Exchange site, you can leave a comment to explain where the question may be able to be answered.
Closed 6 years ago.
Improve this question
I am a freelance programmer and often I will register a domain name for a client under a domain name reseller (and of course under my account).
I wanted to know if there is any standard procedure for selling the domain name to the client or just let them transfer it.
Does anyone know a normal procedure for this type of scenario?
If the domain name was purchased on behalf of the client, then it belong to the client and I would not charge them if they want to move the domain to a different registrar. It would not be ethical. I normally insert my name as technical contact only and leave the client as administrative contact, thereby indicating they are the owners.