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how to get uniformed random between a, b by a known uniformed random function RANDOM(0,1)
In the book of Introduction to algorithms, there is an excise:
Describe an implementation of the procedure Random(a, b) that only makes calls to Random(0,1). What is the expected running time of your procedure, as a function of a and b? The probability of the result of Random(a,b) should be pure uniformly distributed, as Random(0,1)
For the Random function, the results are integers between a and b, inclusively. For e.g., Random(0,1) generates either 0 or 1; Random(a, b) generates a, a+1, a+2, ..., b
My solution is like this:
for i = 1 to b-a
r = a + Random(0,1)
return r
the running time is T=b-a
Is this correct? Are the results of my solutions uniformly distributed?
Thanks
What if my new solution is like this:
r = a
for i = 1 to b - a //including b-a
r += Random(0,1)
return r
If it is not correct, why r += Random(0,1) makes r not uniformly distributed?
Others have explained why your solution doesn't work. Here's the correct solution:
1) Find the smallest number, p, such that 2^p > b-a.
2) Perform the following algorithm:
r=0
for i = 1 to p
r = 2*r + Random(0,1)
3) If r is greater than b-a, go to step 2.
4) Your result is r+a
So let's try Random(1,3).
So b-a is 2.
2^1 = 2, so p will have to be 2 so that 2^p is greater than 2.
So we'll loop two times. Let's try all possible outputs:
00 -> r=0, 0 is not > 2, so we output 0+1 or 1.
01 -> r=1, 1 is not > 2, so we output 1+1 or 2.
10 -> r=2, 2 is not > 2, so we output 2+1 or 3.
11 -> r=3, 3 is > 2, so we repeat.
So 1/4 of the time, we output 1. 1/4 of the time we output 2. 1/4 of the time we output 3. And 1/4 of the time we have to repeat the algorithm a second time. Looks good.
Note that if you have to do this a lot, two optimizations are handy:
1) If you use the same range a lot, have a class that computes p once so you don't have to compute it each time.
2) Many CPUs have fast ways to perform step 1 that aren't exposed in high-level languages. For example, x86 CPUs have the BSR instruction.
No, it's not correct, that method will concentrate around (a+b)/2. It's a binomial distribution.
Are you sure that Random(0,1) produces integers? it would make more sense if it produced floating point values between 0 and 1. Then the solution would be an affine transformation, running time independent of a and b.
An idea I just had, in case it's about integer values: use bisection. At each step, you have a range low-high. If Random(0,1) returns 0, the next range is low-(low+high)/2, else (low+high)/2-high.
Details and complexity left to you, since it's homework.
That should create (approximately) a uniform distribution.
Edit: approximately is the important word there. Uniform if b-a+1 is a power of 2, not too far off if it's close, but not good enough generally. Ah, well it was a spontaneous idea, can't get them all right.
No, your solution isn't correct. This sum'll have binomial distribution.
However, you can generate a pure random sequence of 0, 1 and treat it as a binary number.
repeat
result = a
steps = ceiling(log(b - a))
for i = 0 to steps
result += (2 ^ i) * Random(0, 1)
until result <= b
KennyTM: my bad.
I read the other answers. For fun, here is another way to find the random number:
Allocate an array with b-a elements.
Set all the values to 1.
Iterate through the array. For each nonzero element, flip the coin, as it were. If it is came up 0, set the element to 0.
Whenever, after a complete iteration, you only have 1 element remaining, you have your random number: a+i where i is the index of the nonzero element (assuming we start indexing on 0). All numbers are then equally likely. (You would have to deal with the case where it's a tie, but I leave that as an exercise for you.)
This would have O(infinity) ... :)
On average, though, half the numbers would be eliminated, so it would have an average case running time of log_2 (b-a).
First of all I assume you are actually accumulating the result, not adding 0 or 1 to a on each step.
Using some probabilites you can prove that your solution is not uniformly distibuted. The chance that the resulting value r is (a+b)/2 is greatest. For instance if a is 0 and b is 7, the chance that you get a value 4 is (combination 4 of 7) divided by 2 raised to the power 7. The reason for that is that no matter which 4 out of the 7 values are 1 the result will still be 4.
The running time you estimate is correct.
Your solution's pseudocode should look like:
r=a
for i = 0 to b-a
r+=Random(0,1)
return r
As for uniform distribution, assuming that the random implementation this random number generator is based on is perfectly uniform the odds of getting 0 or 1 are 50%. Therefore getting the number you want is the result of that choice made over and over again.
So for a=1, b=5, there are 5 choices made.
The odds of getting 1 involves 5 decisions, all 0, the odds of that are 0.5^5 = 3.125%
The odds of getting 5 involves 5 decisions, all 1, the odds of that are 0.5^5 = 3.125%
As you can see from this, the distribution is not uniform -- the odds of any number should be 20%.
In the algorithm you created, it is really not equally distributed.
The result "r" will always be either "a" or "a+1". It will never go beyond that.
It should look something like this:
r=0;
for i=0 to b-a
r = a + r + Random(0,1)
return r;
By including "r" into your computation, you are including the "randomness" of all the previous "for" loop runs.
Related
I am given a uniform integer random number generator ~ U3(1,3) (inclusive). I would like to generate integers ~ U5(1,5) (inclusive) using U3. What is the best way to do this?
This simplest approach I can think of is to sample twice from U3 and then use rejection sampling. I.e., sampling twice from U3 gives us 9 possible combinations. We can assign the first 5 combinations to 1,2,3,4,5, and reject the last 4 combinations.
This approach expects to sample from U3 9/5 * 2 = 18/5 = 3.6 times.
Another approach could be to sample three times from U3. This gives us a sample space of 27 possible combinations. We can make use of 25 of these combinations and reject the last 2. This approach expects to use U3 27/25 * 3.24 times. But this approach would be a little more tedious to write out since we have a lot more combinations than the first, but the expected number of sampling from U3 is better than the first.
Are there other, perhaps better, approaches to doing this?
I have this marked as language agnostic, but I'm primarily looking into doing this in either Python or C++.
You do not need combinations. A slight tweak using base 3 arithmetic removes the need for a table. Rather than using the 1..3 result directly, subtract 1 to get it into the range 0..2 and treat it as a base 3 digit. For three samples you could do something like:
function sample3()
result <- 0
result <- result + 9 * (randU3() - 1) // High digit: 9
result <- result + 3 * (randU3() - 1) // Middle digit: 3
result <- result + 1 * (randU3() - 1) // Units digit: 1
return result
end function
That will give you a number in the range 0..26, or 1..27 if you add one. You can use that number directly in the rest of your program.
For the range [1, 3] to [1, 5], this is equivalent to rolling a 5-sided die with a 3-sided one.
However, this can't be done without "wasting" randomness (or running forever in the worst case), since all the prime factors of 5 (namely 5) don't divide 3. Thus, the best that can be done is to use rejection sampling to get arbitrarily close to no "waste" of randomness (such as by batching multiple rolls of the 3-sided die until 3^n is "close enough" to a power of 5). In other words, the approaches you give in your question are as good as they can get.
More generally, an algorithm to roll a k-sided die with a p-sided die will inevitably "waste" randomness (and run forever in the worst case) unless "every prime number dividing k also divides p", according to Lemma 3 in "Simulating a dice with a dice" by B. Kloeckner. For example:
Take the much more practical case that p is a power of 2 (and any block of random bits is the same as rolling a die with a power of 2 number of faces) and k is arbitrary. In this case, this "waste" and indefinite running time are inevitable unless k is also a power of 2.
This result applies to any case of rolling a n-sided die with a m-sided die, where n and m are prime numbers. For example, look at the answers to a question for the case n = 7 and m = 5.
See also this question: Frugal conversion of uniformly distributed random numbers from one range to another.
Peter O. is right, you cannot escape to loose some randomness. So the only choice is between how expensive calls to U(1,3) are, code clarity, simplicity etc.
Here is my variant, making bits from U(1,3) and combining them together with rejection
C/C++ (untested!)
int U13(); // your U(1,3)
int getBit() { // single random bit
return (U13()-1)&1;
}
int U15() {
int r;
for(;;) {
int q = getBit() + 2*getBit() + 4*getBit(); // uniform in [0...8)
if (q < 5) { // need range [0...5)
r = q + 1; // q accepted, make it in [1...5]
break;
}
}
return r;
}
I am trying to find a solution in which a given resource (eg. budget) will be best distributed to different options which yields different results on the resource provided.
Let's say I have N = 1200 and some functions. (a, b, c, d are some unknown variables)
f1(x) = a * x
f2(x) = b * x^c
f3(x) = a*x + b*x^2 + c*x^3
f4(x) = d^x
f5(x) = log x^d
...
And also, let's say there n number of these functions that yield different results based on its input x, where x = 0 or x >= m, where m is a constant.
Although I am not able to find exact formula for the given functions, I am able to find the output. This means that I can do:
X = f1(N1) + f2(N2) + f3(N3) + ... + fn(Nn) where (N1 + ... Nn) = N as many times as there are ways of distributing N into n numbers, and find a specific case where X is the greatest.
How would I actually go about finding the best distribution of N with the least computation power, using whatever libraries currently available?
If you are happy with allocations constrained to be whole numbers then there is a dynamic programming solution of cost O(Nn) - so you can increase accuracy by scaling if you want, but this will increase cpu time.
For each i=1 to n maintain an array where element j gives the maximum yield using only the first i functions giving them a total allowance of j.
For i=1 this is simply the result of f1().
For i=k+1 consider when working out the result for j consider each possible way of splitting j units between f_{k+1}() and the table that tells you the best return from a distribution among the first k functions - so you can calculate the table for i=k+1 using the table created for k.
At the end you get the best possible return for n functions and N resources. It makes it easier to find out what that best answer is if you maintain of a set of arrays telling the best way to distribute k units among the first i functions, for all possible values of i and k. Then you can look up the best allocation for f100(), subtract off the value this allocated to f100() from N, look up the best allocation for f99() given the resulting resources, and carry on like this until you have worked out the best allocations for all f().
As an example suppose f1(x) = 2x, f2(x) = x^2 and f3(x) = 3 if x>0 and 0 otherwise. Suppose we have 3 units of resource.
The first table is just f1(x) which is 0, 2, 4, 6 for 0,1,2,3 units.
The second table is the best you can do using f1(x) and f2(x) for 0,1,2,3 units and is 0, 2, 4, 9, switching from f1 to f2 at x=2.
The third table is 0, 3, 5, 9. I can get 3 and 5 by using 1 unit for f3() and the rest for the best solution in the second table. 9 is simply the best solution in the second table - there is no better solution using 3 resources that gives any of them to f(3)
So 9 is the best answer here. One way to work out how to get there is to keep the tables around and recalculate that answer. 9 comes from f3(0) + 9 from the second table so all 3 units are available to f2() + f1(). The second table 9 comes from f2(3) so there are no units left for f(1) and we get f1(0) + f2(3) + f3(0).
When you are working the resources to use at stage i=k+1 you have a table form i=k that tells you exactly the result to expect from the resources you have left over after you have decided to use some at stage i=k+1. The best distribution does not become incorrect because that stage i=k you have worked out the result for the best distribution given every possible number of remaining resources.
Suppose I have a real number. I want to approximate it with something of the form a+sqrt(b) for integers a and b. But I don't know the values of a and b. Of course I would prefer to get a good approximation with small values of a and b. Let's leave it undefined for now what is meant by "good" and "small". Any sensible definitions of those terms will do.
Is there a sane way to find them? Something like the continued fraction algorithm for finding fractional approximations of decimals. For more on the fractions problem, see here.
EDIT: To clarify, it is an arbitrary real number. All I have are a bunch of its digits. So depending on how good of an approximation we want, a and b might or might not exist. Brute force is naturally not a particularly good algorithm. The best I can think of would be to start adding integers to my real, squaring the result, and seeing if I come close to an integer. Pretty much brute force, and not a particularly good algorithm. But if nothing better exists, that would itself be interesting to know.
EDIT: Obviously b has to be zero or positive. But a could be any integer.
No need for continued fractions; just calculate the square-root of all "small" values of b (up to whatever value you feel is still "small" enough), remove everything before the decimal point, and sort/store them all (along with the b that generated it).
Then when you need to approximate a real number, find the radical whose decimal-portion is closet to the real number's decimal-portion. This gives you b - choosing the correct a is then a simple matter of subtraction.
This is actually more of a math problem than a computer problem, but to answer the question I think you are right that you can use continued fractions. What you do is first represent the target number as a continued fraction. For example, if you want to approximate pi (3.14159265) then the CF is:
3: 7, 15, 1, 288, 1, 2, 1, 3, 1, 7, 4 ...
The next step is create a table of CFs for square roots, then you compare the values in the table to the fractional part of the target value (here: 7, 15, 1, 288, 1, 2, 1, 3, 1, 7, 4...). For example, let's say your table had square roots for 1-99 only. Then you would find the closest match would be sqrt(51) which has a CF of 7: 7,14 repeating. The 7,14 is the closest to pi's 7,15. Thus your answer would be:
sqrt(51)-4
As the closest approximation given a b < 100 which is off by 0.00016. If you allow larger b's then you could get a better approximation.
The advantage of using CFs is that it is faster than working in, say, doubles or using floating point. For example, in the above case you only have to compare two integers (7 and 15), and you can also use indexing to make finding the closest entry in the table very fast.
This can be done using mixed integer quadratic programming very efficiently (though there are no run-time guarantees as MIQP is NP-complete.)
Define:
d := the real number you wish to approximate
b, a := two integers such that a + sqrt(b) is as "close" to d as possible
r := (d - a)^2 - b, is the residual of the approximation
The goal is to minimize r. Setup your quadratic program as:
x := [ s b t ]
D := | 1 0 0 |
| 0 0 0 |
| 0 0 0 |
c := [0 -1 0]^T
with the constraint that s - t = f (where f is the fractional part of d)
and b,t are integers (s is not)
This is a convex (therefore optimally solvable) mixed integer quadratic program since D is positive semi-definite.
Once s,b,t are computed, simply derive the answer using b=b, s=d-a and t can be ignored.
Your problem may be NP-complete, it would be interesting to prove if so.
Some of the previous answers use methods that are of time or space complexity O(n), where n is the largest “small number” that will be accepted. By contrast, the following method is O(sqrt(n)) in time, and O(1) in space.
Suppose that positive real number r = x + y, where x=floor(r) and 0 ≤ y < 1. We want to approximate r by a number of the form a + √b. If x+y ≈ a+√b then x+y-a ≈ √b, so √b ≈ h+y for some integer offset h, and b ≈ (h+y)^2. To make b an integer, we want to minimize the fractional part of (h+y)^2 over all eligible h. There are at most √n eligible values of h. See following python code and sample output.
import math, random
def findb(y, rhi):
bestb = loerror = 1;
for r in range(2,rhi):
v = (r+y)**2
u = round(v)
err = abs(v-u)
if round(math.sqrt(u))**2 == u: continue
if err < loerror:
bestb, loerror = u, err
return bestb
#random.seed(123456) # set a seed if testing repetitively
f = [math.pi-3] + sorted([random.random() for i in range(24)])
print (' frac sqrt(b) error b')
for frac in f:
b = findb(frac, 12)
r = math.sqrt(b)
t = math.modf(r)[0] # Get fractional part of sqrt(b)
print ('{:9.5f} {:9.5f} {:11.7f} {:5.0f}'.format(frac, r, t-frac, b))
(Note 1: This code is in demo form; the parameters to findb() are y, the fractional part of r, and rhi, the square root of the largest small number. You may wish to change usage of parameters. Note 2: The
if round(math.sqrt(u))**2 == u: continue
line of code prevents findb() from returning perfect-square values of b, except for the value b=1, because no perfect square can improve upon the accuracy offered by b=1.)
Sample output follows. About a dozen lines have been elided in the middle. The first output line shows that this procedure yields b=51 to represent the fractional part of pi, which is the same value reported in some other answers.
frac sqrt(b) error b
0.14159 7.14143 -0.0001642 51
0.11975 4.12311 0.0033593 17
0.12230 4.12311 0.0008085 17
0.22150 9.21954 -0.0019586 85
0.22681 11.22497 -0.0018377 126
0.25946 2.23607 -0.0233893 5
0.30024 5.29150 -0.0087362 28
0.36772 8.36660 -0.0011170 70
0.42452 8.42615 0.0016309 71
...
0.93086 6.92820 -0.0026609 48
0.94677 8.94427 -0.0024960 80
0.96549 11.95826 -0.0072333 143
0.97693 11.95826 -0.0186723 143
With the following code added at the end of the program, the output shown below also appears. This shows closer approximations for the fractional part of pi.
frac, rhi = math.pi-3, 16
print (' frac sqrt(b) error b bMax')
while rhi < 1000:
b = findb(frac, rhi)
r = math.sqrt(b)
t = math.modf(r)[0] # Get fractional part of sqrt(b)
print ('{:11.7f} {:11.7f} {:13.9f} {:7.0f} {:7.0f}'.format(frac, r, t-frac, b,rhi**2))
rhi = 3*rhi/2
frac sqrt(b) error b bMax
0.1415927 7.1414284 -0.000164225 51 256
0.1415927 7.1414284 -0.000164225 51 576
0.1415927 7.1414284 -0.000164225 51 1296
0.1415927 7.1414284 -0.000164225 51 2916
0.1415927 7.1414284 -0.000164225 51 6561
0.1415927 120.1415831 -0.000009511 14434 14641
0.1415927 120.1415831 -0.000009511 14434 32761
0.1415927 233.1415879 -0.000004772 54355 73441
0.1415927 346.1415895 -0.000003127 119814 164836
0.1415927 572.1415909 -0.000001786 327346 370881
0.1415927 911.1415916 -0.000001023 830179 833569
I do not know if there is any kind of standard algorithm for this kind of problem, but it does intrigue me, so here is my attempt at developing an algorithm that finds the needed approximation.
Call the real number in question r. Then, first I assume that a can be negative, in that case we can reduce the problem and now only have to find a b such that the decimal part of sqrt(b) is a good approximation of the decimal part of r. Let us now write r as r = x.y with x being the integer and y the decimal part.
Now:
b = r^2
= (x.y)^2
= (x + .y)^2
= x^2 + 2 * x * .y + .y^2
= 2 * x * .y + .y^2 (mod 1)
We now only have to find an x such that 0 = .y^2 + 2 * x * .y (mod 1) (approximately).
Filling that x into the formulas above we get b and can then calculate a as a = r - b. (All of these calculations have to be carefully rounded of course.)
Now, for the time being I am not sure if there is a way to find this x without brute forcing it. But even then, one can simple use a simple loop to find an x good enough.
I am thinking of something like this(semi pseudo code):
max_diff_low = 0.01 // arbitrary accuracy
max_diff_high = 1 - max_diff_low
y = r % 1
v = y^2
addend = 2 * y
x = 0
while (v < max_diff_high && v > max_diff_low)
x++;
v = (v + addend) % 1
c = (x + y) ^ 2
b = round(c)
a = round(r - c)
Now, I think this algorithm is fairly efficient, while even allowing you to specify the wished accuracy of the approximation. One thing that could be done that would turn it into an O(1) algorithm is calculating all the x and putting them into a lookup table. If one only cares about the first three decimal digits of r(for example), the lookup table would only have 1000 values, which is only 4kb of memory(assuming that 32bit integers are used).
Hope this is helpful at all. If anyone finds anything wrong with the algorithm, please let me know in a comment and I will fix it.
EDIT:
Upon reflection I retract my claim of efficiency. There is in fact as far as I can tell no guarantee that the algorithm as outlined above will ever terminate, and even if it does, it might take a long time to find a very large x that solves the equation adequately.
One could maybe keep track of the best x found so far and relax the accuracy bounds over time to make sure the algorithm terminates quickly, at the possible cost of accuracy.
These problems are of course non-existent, if one simply pre-calculates a lookup table.
I want an algorithm to simulate this loaded die:
the probabilities are:
1: 1/18
2: 5/18
3: 1/18
4: 5/18
5: 1/18
6: 5/18
It favors even numbers.
My idea is to calculate in matlab the possibility of the above.
I can do it with 1/6 (normal die), but I am having difficulties applying it for a loaded die.
One way: generate two random numbers: first one is from 0 to 5 (0: odd, 1 - 5: even), which is used to determine even or odd. Then generate a second between 0 and 2, which determines exact number within its category. For example, if the first number is 3 (which says even) and second is 2 (which says the third chunk, 1-2 is a chunk, 3-4 is another chunk and 5-6 is the last chunk), the the result is 6.
Another way: generate a random number between 0 and 17, then you can simply / 6 and % 6 and use those two numbers to decide. For example, if /6 gives you 0, then the choice is between 1 and 2, then if % 6 == 0, the choice lands on 1, otherwise lands on 2.
In matlab:
ceil(rand*3)*2-(rand>(5/6))
The generic solution:
Use roulette wheel selection
n = generate number between 0 and sum( probabilities )
s = 0;
i = 0;
while s <= n do
i = i + 1;
s = s + probability of element i;
done
After the loop is done i will be the number of the chosen element. This works for any kind of skewed probability distribution, even when you have weights instead of a probability and want to skip normalizing.
In the concise language of J,
>:3(<([++:#])|)?18
Say S = 5 and N = 3 the solutions would look like - <0,0,5> <0,1,4> <0,2,3> <0,3,2> <5,0,0> <2,3,0> <3,2,0> <1,2,2> etc etc.
In the general case, N nested loops can be used to solve the problem. Run N nested loop, inside them check if the loop variables add upto S.
If we do not know N ahead of time, we can use a recursive solution. In each level, run a loop starting from 0 to N, and then call the function itself again. When we reach a depth of N, see if the numbers obtained add up to S.
Any other dynamic programming solution?
Try this recursive function:
f(s, n) = 1 if s = 0
= 0 if s != 0 and n = 0
= sum f(s - i, n - 1) over i in [0, s] otherwise
To use dynamic programming you can cache the value of f after evaluating it, and check if the value already exists in the cache before evaluating it.
There is a closed form formula : binomial(s + n - 1, s) or binomial(s+n-1,n-1)
Those numbers are the simplex numbers.
If you want to compute them, use the log gamma function or arbitrary precision arithmetic.
See https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2455/geometric-proof-of-the-formula-for-simplex-numbers
I have my own formula for this. We, together with my friend Gio made an investigative report concerning this. The formula that we got is [2 raised to (n-1) - 1], where n is the number we are looking for how many addends it has.
Let's try.
If n is 1: its addends are o. There's no two or more numbers that we can add to get a sum of 1 (excluding 0). Let's try a higher number.
Let's try 4. 4 has addends: 1+1+1+1, 1+2+1, 1+1+2, 2+1+1, 1+3, 2+2, 3+1. Its total is 7.
Let's check with the formula. 2 raised to (4-1) - 1 = 2 raised to (3) - 1 = 8-1 =7.
Let's try 15. 2 raised to (15-1) - 1 = 2 raised to (14) - 1 = 16384 - 1 = 16383. Therefore, there are 16383 ways to add numbers that will equal to 15.
(Note: Addends are positive numbers only.)
(You can try other numbers, to check whether our formula is correct or not.)
This can be calculated in O(s+n) (or O(1) if you don't mind an approximation) in the following way:
Imagine we have a string with n-1 X's in it and s o's. So for your example of s=5, n=3, one example string would be
oXooXoo
Notice that the X's divide the o's into three distinct groupings: one of length 1, length 2, and length 2. This corresponds to your solution of <1,2,2>. Every possible string gives us a different solution, by counting the number of o's in a row (a 0 is possible: for example, XoooooX would correspond to <0,5,0>). So by counting the number of possible strings of this form, we get the answer to your question.
There are s+(n-1) positions to choose for s o's, so the answer is Choose(s+n-1, s).
There is a fixed formula to find the answer. If you want to find the number of ways to get N as the sum of R elements. The answer is always:
(N+R-1)!/((R-1)!*(N)!)
or in other words:
(N+R-1) C (R-1)
This actually looks a lot like a Towers of Hanoi problem, without the constraint of stacking disks only on larger disks. You have S disks that can be in any combination on N towers. So that's what got me thinking about it.
What I suspect is that there is a formula we can deduce that doesn't require the recursive programming. I'll need a bit more time though.