I have a spring context file with several beans of type defined.
If the input to my program is "help" then I would like to display the bean names from the context file, so that the user can pick a particular bean and give it as input. The program would instantiate the bean with that name and perform some logic.
I am not able to query the list of bean names from a particular context file.
I don't want to use a properties file to store the bean names as I am already using spring context files. Is there a better way to do this ?
Spring's BeanFactory has got a method called String[] getBeanDefinitionNames(). See Javadoc here. You can iterate through the returned list and show them to the user. then you can do a getBean call on the chosen bean name to run the logic.
Related
I need to register a series of BeanDefinition(s) before every other Bean gets created. That's because those registered Bean(s) are needed for autowiring and ApplicationContext#getBean calls.
I cannot use #DependsOn, obviously.
Example:
final var beanDefinition = new GenericBeanDefinition();
beanDefinition.setBeanClass(...);
beanDefinition.setLazyInit(true);
beanDefinition.setAbstract(false);
beanDefinition.setAutowireCandidate(true);
beanDefinition.setAutowireMode(AbstractBeanDefinition.AUTOWIRE_BY_TYPE);
beanDefinition.setScope(BeanDefinition.SCOPE_PROTOTYPE);
registry.registerBeanDefinition("...", beanDefinition);
Which point/interface/lister can I use to obtain this? Keep in mind I need an instance of BeanDefinitionRegistry.
Adding explanation as required.
Those definitions are created from a list of Classes gathered by scanning the classpath. Those classes are not Spring Bean(s) natively, so I need to integrate them into my ApplicationContext. Those classes, however, accepts constructor arguments which are Spring Beans.
That's why I'm setting
beanDefinition.setAutowireCandidate(true);
beanDefinition.setAutowireMode(AbstractBeanDefinition.AUTOWIRE_BY_TYPE);
Those new registered Beans are there used by other Bean(s) (native Beans).
You are trying to make the solution too complex. If your only goal is to have non #Component annotated classes be detected by component scanning and have them used as Spring Beans simply define a custom includeFilter for the #COmponentScan.
You can use a filter of type ASPECTJ or REGEX to match a package or type.
#ComponentScan(includeFilter = #Filter(type=REGEX, expression="com.foo.bar.*))
Something like that will automatically detect your beans (assuming they are in a packaged being scanned) and create spring beans out of them. If they have a single constructor that will automatically be used to create an instance.
Register a new BeanFactoryPostProcessor or BeanDefinitionRegistryPostProcessor bean in your context. This bean will get invoked after bean definitions are scanned but before actual beans are constructed:
Extension to the standard BeanFactoryPostProcessor SPI, allowing for the registration of further bean definitions before regular BeanFactoryPostProcessor detection kicks in. In particular, BeanDefinitionRegistryPostProcessor may register further bean definitions which in turn define BeanFactoryPostProcessor instances.
I have had chance of working on only one project using spring , and the way it worked was
Make a singleton class (lets say MySpringHelper), that has method like getBean(String beanName)
What getBean(String) does is, it first checks existence of applicationContext, if it exists uses same to get the bean , else creates new applicationContext and returns the bean
Wherever in you project you need a bean simply call MySpringHelper.getBean("abc")
Keeping this in mind , when i was studying spring , i noticed interface "ApplicationContextAware" ... I am not sure when will this be needed, uses above pattern such interface seems not of any use. Or the above Singleton MySpringHelper pattern/approach is incorrect ??
Looking forward to learn from your experience
To give more details on application , its like a pdf file generator, 1 pdf file having 12-15 different charts, so the main method runs 1 thread for each chart , and inside these chart logic we are using singleton MySpringHelper
Why are you checking the existance of applicationContext? It should be there if your helper bean is configured in xml and has setter method in it. There is no need to create application context in that case.
For your case, I would suggest you get applicationContext injected by Spring rather than by using ApplicationContextAware.
When I defined a 'MethodInvokingFactory' bean with 'scope=step', I got an error that the type of the bean can't be determined. It worked fine when I replaced 'scope=step' with 'lazy-init=true'. As per my knowledge, both are used for the late binding of the beans, except for that one difference. Are there any other differences between these two ways? Also, is my usage correct?
Please let me know your thoughts about this.
To answer to your question from low-level perspective:
lazy-init="true" means that bean will not be instantiated when the context is created, but will be created when it is referred e.g. by another bean. I think this is clear, also from #AravindA comment.
Scoped bean works in different manner. When context is created this bean is wrapped into additional proxy object (by default created by CGLIB), which is passed to the bean that refers it (this proxy is by default singleton, e.g. shared). So each time the method is invoked on the proxy in runtime Spring intersects the call, requests the factory to return the instance of the bean and invokes the method on that bean. The factory in its turn may lookup for "real" bean instance e.g. in HTTP request ("request" scope) or HTTP session ("session" scope) and/or create new instance if necessary. Late instantiation allows to initialize the scoped bean with "runtime" (scope) values, e.g. values from HTTP request/session which are obviously undefined when context was created. In particular "step"-scoped beans are bound to thread local (remember that steps are run in parallel for partitioning). So, scoped beans are dereferred when you call a method on them. Finally one can easily break this elegant Spring "ideology" by calling any method on scoped bean just after it is set to another bean (e.g. in the setter) :)
One thing to understand about lazy-initialization is that even though a bean
definition may be marked up as being lazy-initialized, if the lazy-initialized
bean is the dependency of a singleton bean that is not lazy-initialized, when the
ApplicationContext is eagerly pre-instantiating the singleton, it will have to
satisfy all of the singletons dependencies, one of which will be the
lazy-initialized bean!
Using a scope of Step is required in order to use late binding since the bean
cannot actually be instantiated until the Step starts, which allows the
attributes to be found. Because it is not part of the Spring container by
default, the scope must be added explicitly, either by using the batch namespace
or by including a bean definition explicitly for the StepScope (but not both):
<bean class="org.springframework.batch.core.scope.StepScope" />
Read here and here for more info
The scope="step" has nothing to do with Lazy initialization . It is use for late binding of parameters inside a "Step" .
the step scope is specifically for latebinding of job/step attributes and not really for late-binding of beans, meaning the spring bean context/factory will enhance stepscoped beans and look for attributes to set, e.g.
value="#{jobParameters[input.file.name]}
Our app has a requirement to support multi-tenancy. Each of the boarded customer might potentially override 1 or more beans or some properties of a bean defined at the core platform level (common code/definitions). I am wondering what is the best way to handle this.
Spring allows you to redefine the same bean name multiple times, and takes the last bean definition processed for a given name to be the one that wins. So for example, your could have an XML file defining your core beans, and import that in a client-specific XML file, which also redefines some of those beans. It's a bit fragile, though, since there's no mechanism to specifically say "this bean definition is an override".
I've found that the cleanest way to handle this is using the new #Bean-syntax introduced in Spring 3. Rather than defining beans as XML, you define them in Java. So your core beans would be defined in one #Bean-annotated class, and your client configs would subclass that, and override the appropriate beans. This allows you to use standard java #Override annotations, explicitly indicating that a given bean definition is being overridden.
I'm reviewing some Spring code, and I see a few bean defs that do not have an id or a name.
The person who did it is not around to ask.
The application is working fine.
I am not familiar what this necessarily means.
Anybody know if this means anything in particular?
Some beans are not required to be accessed by other beans in the context file or programmatically. So as mentioned by JacobM, they don't require an id or name as they're not referenced.
Such an example would be a PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer, which reads a property file, then allows for runtime property replacement in the context definition.
The example definition would be
<bean class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer">
<property name="location" value="myapp.properties" />
</bean>
The JavaDoc provides further documentation on this object, but further on in the file you can reference properties from your file by just using the standard template replace placeholder ${...}.
One possibility is that you can define a bean in place, and so you don't need an id since you don't need to refer to it from anywhere else. Say I have a Foo object that takes a Bar property:
<bean id="foo" class="Foo">
<property name="bar">
<bean class="Bar">
</property>
</bean>
The Bar bean doesn't need a name because it's only used to set that one property.
Check the possibility of auto-wiring. An other bean could reference the unnamed bean by having the autowire property set to byType.
This is just a guess. Without a concrete example, I can't say any more.
The id and name attributes are optional and are used to reference the bean definition from other definitions. Look at the official Spring documentation for more detail.
take a look at https://docs.spring.io/spring/docs/4.3.12.RELEASE/spring-framework-reference/htmlsingle/#beans-beanname it says,
You are not required to supply a name or id for a bean. If no name or id is supplied explicitly, the container generates a unique name for that bean. However, if you want to refer to that bean by name, through the use of the ref element or Service Locator style lookup, you must provide a name. Motivations for not supplying a name are related to using inner beans and autowiring collaborators.
Also, Beans such as BeanPostProcessor, BeanFactoryPostProcessor and PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer are automatically detected by application context and typically won't have name
If you consider any spring bean, Spring mandates it to have an identifier. In case, if you have not provided any identifier (via id or name attribute) to a bean in your configuration, you won't run into exceptions. Spring will manage such situation by assigning a default identifier. it has BeanNameGenerator to assign default name. <bean class="com.package.name.TestBean"> will be named as "com.package.name.TestBean" #Bean kind of beans will have its method name as bean name
thus, in your code, for some reason, you can skip naming few beans and the code still works if you are accessing those beans with their default name
credits : https://www.javacodegeeks.com/2013/02/spring-bean-names.html
Beans without id or name can still be referenced by the class name. Spring names those beans automatically using the class name and if there is more than one bean of the same class it appends a number to them.
Anonymous beans are usually defined inside a property tag, but if they're just there maybe there's autowiring configured in some other beans.
Anyway, I think adding a name or id to those beans won't break your application.
As a couple of people mentioned above, not all bean-grabbing is based on name/ID; some of it is based on type. For example, there is a method
BeanFactoryUtils.beansOfTypeIncludingAncestors(...)
that grabs all the beans of some given type. This is used for example by the Spring Web MVC DispatcherServlet (among many other places) to discover beans by type, such as HandlerMappings, HandlerAdapters, HandlerExceptionResolvers and so forth. Contrast this with cases where the bean must have a specific well-known name/ID to be found, such as the LocaleResolver (ID must be "localeResolver" or it won't be found) and ThemeResolver (ID must be "themeResolver" or it won't be found).
Beans defined without name and ID can be accessed with a generated ID (full package name and class name), for example:
bean defined as
<bean class="pl.finsys.initOrder.TestBeanImpl">
can be accessed by
TestBean bean = (TestBean) ctx.getBean("pl.finsys.initOrder.TestBeanImpl");
//Bean Cfg File without Bean id
<bean class="com.ds.DemoBean">
<property name="msg" value="Hello"/>
</bean>
//We can Access
Object obj=factory.getBean("com.ds.DemoBe
its not a mandatory to provide java Bean Id..If we are not providing Bean Id,our Container Provides the Default Been Id.Default Bean Id look like as
"(Package Name).(Bean Class Name)#N"where N=0,1,2,......etc.
It seems there is a subtle difference between unnamed and named bean behaviour. If you have an XML config file imported twice, each named bean will be created only once, but an unnamed bean will be created as many times as its definition is included. When trying to autowire such a bean by type, it leads to errors like this:
No qualifying bean of type [your.class.Name] is defined: expected single matching bean but found 4