Calculating actual/effective CPI for 3 level cache - caching

(a) You are given a memory system that has two levels of cache (L1 and L2). Following are the specifications:
Hit time of L1 cache: 2 clock cycles
Hit rate of L1 cache: 92%
Miss penalty to L2 cache (hit time of L2): 8 clock cycles
Hit rate of L2 cache: 86%
Miss penalty to main memory: 37 clock cycles
Assume for the moment that hit rate of main memory is 100%.
Given a 2000 instruction program with 37% data transfer instructions (loads/stores), calculate the CPI (Clock Cycles per Instruction) for this scenario.
For this part, I calculated it like this (am I doing this right?):
(m1: miss rate of L1, m2: miss rate of L2)
AMAT = HitTime_L1 + m1*(HitTime_L2 + m2*MissPenalty_L2)
CPI(actual) = CPI(ideal) + (AMAT - CPI(ideal))*AverageMemoryAccess
(b) Now lets add another level of cache, i.e., L3 cache between the L2 cache and the main memory. Consider the following:
Miss penalty to L3 cache (hit time of L3 cache): 13 clock cycles
Hit rate of L3 cache: 81%
Miss penalty to main memory: 37 clock cycles
Other specifications remain as part (a)
For the same 2000 instruction program (which has 37% data transfer instructions), calculate the CPI.
(m1: miss rate of L1, m2: miss rate of L2, m3: miss rate of L3)
AMAT = HitTime_L1
+ m1*(HitTime_L2 + m2*MissPenalty_L2)
+ m2*(HitTime_L3 + m3*MissPenalty_L3)
Is this formula correct and where do I add the miss penalty to main memory in this formula?
It should probably be added with the miss penalty of L3 but I am not sure.

(a) The AMAT calculation is correct if you notice that the MissPenalty_L2 parameter is what you called Miss penalty to main memory.
The CPI is a bit more difficult.
First of all, let's assume that the CPU is not pipelined (sequential processor).
There are 1.37 memory accesses per instruction (one access to fetch the instruction and 0.37 due to data transfer instructions). The ideal case is that all memory acceses hit in the L1 cache.
So, knowing that:
CPI(ideal) = CPI(computation) + CPI(mem) =
CPI(computation) + Memory_Accesses_per_Instruction*HitTime_L1 =
CPI(computation) + 1.37*HitTime_L1
With real memory, the average memory access time is AMAT, so:
CPI(actual) = CPI(computation) + Memory_Accesses_per_Instruction*AMAT =
CPI(ideal) + Memory_Accesses_per_Instruction*(AMAT - HitTime_L1) =
CPI(ideal) + 1.37*(AMAT - HitTime_L1)
(b) Your AMAT calculation is wrong. After a miss at L2, it follows a L3 access that can be a hit or a miss. Try to finish the exercise yourself.

Related

Finding average memory access time, AMAT and global miss rate

I'm quite confused about this question. So, I have IL1, DL1 and UL2 and when I try to find AMAT do I use the formula AMAT = Hit Time(1) + Miss Rate * (Hit time(2) + Miss Rate * Miss Penalty ? or Do I also add Hit time(3) because there are 3 miss rates
For Example: 0.4 + 0.1 * (0.8 + 0.05 * (10 + 0.02 * 48))
I used AMAT = Hit Time(1) + Miss Rate * (Hit time(2) + Miss Rate * (Hit time(3) + Miss Rate * Miss Penalty))
Here is the Table, and also Frequency is 2.5 GHZ and It is also provided that 20% of all instructions are of load/store type.
By the way are there also a way to find global miss rate of UL2 in %? I'm also quite stuck on that one too.
There are two different cache hierarchies to consider.  I cannot tell from your question post if you're trying to compute AMAT for just data operations (load & store) or for instruction access + data operations (20% of the them).
The hierarchies:
Instruction Cache: IL1 backed by UL2 backed by Main Memory
Data Cache: DL1 backed by UL2 backed by Main Memory
There is a stated hit time & miss rate associated with each individual cache, and, this is necessary because the caches are of different construction and size (and also in different positions in the hierarchy).
All instructions participate in accessing of the Instruction Cache, so hit/miss there applies to every instruction regardless of the nature or type of the instruction.  So, you can compute the AMAT for instruction access alone generally using the IL1->UL2->Main Memory hierarchy — be sure to use the specific hit time and miss rate for each given level in the hierarchy: 1clk & 10% for IL1; 25clk & 2% for UL2; and 120clk & 0% for Main Memory.
20% of the instructions participate in accessing of the Data Cache.
Of those that do data accesses, you can compute that component of AMAT using the DL1->UL2->Main Memory hierarchy — here you have DL1 with 2clk & 5%; UL2 with 25clk & 2%; and Main Memory with 120clk & 0%.
These numbers can be combined to an overall value that accounts for 100% of the instructions incurring the instructions cache hierarchy AMAT, and 20% of them incurring the data cache hierarchy AMAT.
As needed you can convert AMAT in cycles/clocks to AMAT in (nano) seconds.

how do you find the miss penalty of a single level cache?

I am attempting to find the average memory access time (AMAT) of a single level cache. In order to do so, miss penalty must be calculated since the AMAT formula requires it.
Doing this for a multilevel cache requires using the next level cache penalty. But for a single level, there is obviously no other cache level.
So how is this calculated?
formula:
AMAT = HIT-TIME + MISS-RATE * MISS-PENALTY
You have the correct formula to calculate the AMAT, however you may be misinterpreting the components of the formula. Let’s take a look at how to use this equation, first with a single-level cache and next with a multi-level cache.
Suppose you have a single-level cache. Hit time represents the amount of time required to search and retrieve data from the cache. Miss rate denotes the percentage of the data requested that does not reside in the cache i.e. the percentage of data you have to go to main memory to retrieve. Miss penalty is the amount of time required to retrieve the data once you miss in the cache. Because we are dealing with a single-level cache, the only other level in the memory hierarchy to consider is main memory for the miss penalty.
Here’s a good example for single-level cache:
L1 cache has an access time of 5ns and a miss rate of 50%
Main memory has an access time of 500ns
AMAT = 5ns + 0.5 * 500ns = 255ns
You always check the cache first so you always incur a 5 ns hit time overhead. Because our miss rate is 0.5, we find what we are looking for in the L1 cache half the time and must go to main memory the remaining half time. You can calculate the miss penalty in the following way using a weighted average:
(0.5 * 0ns) + (0.5 * 500ns) = (0.5 * 500ns) = 250ns.
Now, suppose you have a multi-level cache i.e. L1 and L2 cache. Hit time now represents the amount of time to retrieve data in the L1 cache. Miss rate is an indication of how often we miss in the L1 cache. Calculating the miss penalty in a multi-level cache is not as straightforward as before because we need to consider the time required to read data from the L2 cache as well as how often we miss in the L2 cache.
Here’s a good example:
L1 cache has an access time of 5 ns and miss rate of 50%
L2 cache has an access time of 50 ns and miss rate of 20%
Main memory has an access time of 500 ns
AMAT = 5ns + 0.5 * (50ns + 0.2 * 500ns) = 80 ns
Again, you always check the L1 cache first so you always incur a 5 ns hit time overhead. Because our miss rate is 0.5, we find what we are looking for in the L1 cache half the time and must down the memory hierarchy (L2 cache, main memory) the remaining half time. If we do not find the data in the L1 cache, we always look in the L2 cache next. We thus incur a 50 ns hit time overhead every time we miss in the L1 cache. In the case that the data is not in the L2 cache also (which is 20% of the time), we must go to main memory which has a memory access time of 500 ns.

Calculating Effective CPI when using write-through/write-back architecture

So I'm trying to understand a homework problem given by an instructor and I'm honestly lost - I understand the concept of write-through/write-back, etc. but I can't figure out the actual calculations needed for the effective CPI, could anyone give me a hand? (The problem follows:
The following table provides the statistics of a cache for a
particular program. It is known that the base CPI (without cache
misses) is 1. It is also known that the memory bus bandwidth (the
bandwidth to transfer data between cache and memory) is 4 bytes per
cycle, and it takes one cycle to send the address before data
transfer. The memory spends 10 cycles to store data from bus or fetch
data to bus. The clock rate used by memory and the bus is a quarter of
the CPU clock rate.
Data reads per 1000 instructions: 100
Data writes per 1000 instructions: 150
Instruction cache miss rate: 0.4%
Data cache miss rate: 3%
Block size in bytes: 32
The effective CPI is the base CPU plus the CPI contribution from cache misses.
The cache miss CPI is the sum of the of instruction cache CPI and data cache CPI.
The cache miss cost is the cost of reading or writing to memory, so we will need that.
The cost in bus cycles is 1 (for the address) plus 10 (memory busy time) + 8 (32 byte blocks size divided by 4 bytes/cycle) = 19 cycles. Multiply this by 4 to get CPU cycles. Total is 76 CPU cycles.
So the cost for I cache misses is .004 * 76 = .304 cycles.
The cost for D caches misses is (.10 + .15) * .03 * 76 = .57 cycles
So the effective CPI is 1 + .304 + .57 = 1.874 cycles.

Memory access time analytical modelling

There is this question regarding solving the AMAT(Average Memory Access Time) given these data:
Legends: Cache Level 1 = L1 Cache Level 2 = L2 Main Memory = M
L1, L2 and M's Hit Time are 1, 10 and 100 respectively whilst
L1 Miss Rate is 5%, L2 5% and M 50%.
Find the AMAT in clock cycles.
After attempting to solve this question, here is my solution:
AMAT's formula is = Hit Time X Hit Rate + Miss Penalty * Miss Rate
Miss Penalty = AMAT for the next cache(say for example, AMAT of L2)
So I manipulated the formula, resulting into something like this:
AMAT = Hit Time L1 X Hit Rate L1 + AMAT L2 * Miss Rate L1
AMAT L2 = Hit Time L2 X Hit Rate L2 + AMAT M * Miss Rate L2
AMAT M = Hit Time M X Hit Rate M + [???] * Miss Rate M
providing the numerical value for the said formula would look like this:
AMAT = 1 X .95 + AMAT L2 * .05
AMAT L2 = 10 X .95 + AMAT M * .05
AMAT M = 100 X .5 + [???] * .5
So my first question would be, is my formula correct?
Next, how to get M's Miss Penalty?
Your "cascading" deductions are correct. If you miss L1 then the data has to be fetched from L2, involving a penalty, and if you miss L2 the data has to be fetched from RAM involving a higher penalty. Based on this your method of computing AMAT is correct.
Now, let's look a bit at the computer architecture. After L1 you have L2, after L2 there can be an L3 or it can be a RAM. After RAM you have the persistent storage (Hard disk).
However, the access time towards the HDD is very difficult to compute. Majority of the profilers (e.g perf, oprofile) just give you miss rates for the cache and assume that the rest of reads are taken directly from the RAM. Usually this is the case in modern computers. Reads from hard drives are marked as I/O requests. Why is it hard to compute the HDD access time? Because your data block can be at any location on your HDD, depending fragmentation. In case of spinning disks the access time can be lower f the data is located near the magnetic reader. So usually HDD access time is hard to predict when computing AMAT.
This means that if the problem statement gives you only L1, L2, M hit time, you cannot compute HDD hit time. However you can measure/estimate it in real life applications, using profilers.
So in short:
Is your formula correct? Yes - From mathematical point of view. From practical point of view, it is hard to use and generally does not make sense if M hit rate is not 100%.
How to compute M miss penalty? If it is not given you cannot compute it. In practice, by analyzing profiler output you can determine it for a specific measurement (no guaranteed that it will be the same for another measurement, because of the reasons described above).
Cheers.

Cycles/cost for L1 Cache hit vs. Register on x86?

I remember assuming that an L1 cache hit is 1 cycle (i.e. identical to register access time) in my architecture class, but is that actually true on modern x86 processors?
How many cycles does an L1 cache hit take? How does it compare to register access?
Here's a great article on the subject:
http://arstechnica.com/gadgets/reviews/2002/07/caching.ars/1
To answer your question - yes, a cache hit has approximately the same cost as a register access. And of course a cache miss is quite costly ;)
PS:
The specifics will vary, but this link has some good ballpark figures:
Approximate cost to access various caches and main memory?
Core i7 Xeon 5500 Series Data Source Latency (approximate)
L1 CACHE hit, ~4 cycles
L2 CACHE hit, ~10 cycles
L3 CACHE hit, line unshared ~40 cycles
L3 CACHE hit, shared line in another core ~65 cycles
L3 CACHE hit, modified in another core ~75 cycles remote
L3 CACHE ~100-300 cycles
Local DRAM ~30 ns (~120 cycles)
Remote DRAM ~100 ns
PPS:
These figures represent much older, slower CPUs, but the ratios basically hold:
http://arstechnica.com/gadgets/reviews/2002/07/caching.ars/2
Level Access Time Typical Size Technology Managed By
----- ----------- ------------ --------- -----------
Registers 1-3 ns ?1 KB Custom CMOS Compiler
Level 1 Cache (on-chip) 2-8 ns 8 KB-128 KB SRAM Hardware
Level 2 Cache (off-chip) 5-12 ns 0.5 MB - 8 MB SRAM Hardware
Main Memory 10-60 ns 64 MB - 1 GB DRAM Operating System
Hard Disk 3M - 10M ns 20 - 100 GB Magnetic Operating System/User
Throughput and latency are different things. You can't just add up cycle costs. For throughput, see Load/stores per cycle for recent CPU architecture generations - 2 loads per clock throughput for most modern microarchitectures. And see How can cache be that fast? for microarchitectural details of load/store execution units, including showing load / store buffers which limit how much memory-level parallelism they can track. The rest of this answer will focus only on latency, which is relevant for workloads that involve pointer-chasing (like linked lists and trees), and how much latency out-of-order exec needs to hide. (L3 Cache misses are usually too long to fully hide.)
Single-cycle cache latency used to be a thing on simple in-order pipelines at lower clock speeds (so each cycle was more nanoseconds), especially with simpler caches (smaller, not as associative, and with a smaller TLB for caches that weren't purely virtually addressed.) e.g. the classic 5-stage RISC pipeline like MIPS I assumes 1 cycle for memory access on a cache hit, with address calculation in EX and memory access in a single MEM pipeline stage, before WB.
Modern high-performance CPUs divide the pipeline up into more stages, allowing each cycle to be shorter. This lets simple instructions like add / or / and run really fast, still 1 cycle latency but at high clock speed.
For more details about cycle-counting and out-of-order execution, see Agner Fog's microarch pdf, and other links in the x86 tag wiki.
Intel Haswell's L1 load-use latency is 4 cycles for pointer-chasing, which is typical of modern x86 CPUs. i.e. how fast mov eax, [eax] can run in a loop, with a pointer that points to itself. (Or for a linked list that hits in cache, easy to microbench with a closed loop). See also Is there a penalty when base+offset is in a different page than the base? That 4-cycle latency special case only applies if the pointer comes directly from another load, otherwise it's 5 cycles.
Load-use latency is 1 cycle higher for SSE/AVX vectors in Intel CPUs.
Store-reload latency is 5 cycles, and is unrelated to cache hit or miss (it's store-forwarding, reading from the store buffer for store data that hasn't yet committed to L1d cache).
As harold commented, register access is 0 cycles. So, for example:
inc eax has 1 cycle latency (just the ALU operation)
add dword [mem], 1 has 6 cycle latency until a load from dword [mem] will be ready. (ALU + store-forwarding). e.g. keeping a loop counter in memory limits a loop to one iteration per 6 cycles.
mov rax, [rsi] has 4 cycle latency from rsi being ready to rax being ready on an L1 hit (L1 load-use latency.)
http://www.7-cpu.com/cpu/Haswell.html has a table of latency per cache (which I'll copy here), and some other experimental numbers, including L2-TLB hit latency (on an L1DTLB miss).
Intel i7-4770 (Haswell), 3.4 GHz (Turbo Boost off), 22 nm. RAM: 32 GB (PC3-12800 cl11 cr2).
L1 Data cache = 32 KB, 64 B/line, 8-WAY.
L1 Instruction cache = 32 KB, 64 B/line, 8-WAY.
L2 cache = 256 KB, 64 B/line, 8-WAY
L3 cache = 8 MB, 64 B/line
L1 Data Cache Latency = 4 cycles for simple access via pointer (mov rax, [rax])
L1 Data Cache Latency = 5 cycles for access with complex address calculation (mov rax, [rsi + rax*8]).
L2 Cache Latency = 12 cycles
L3 Cache Latency = 36 cycles
RAM Latency = 36 cycles + 57 ns
The top-level benchmark page is http://www.7-cpu.com/utils.html, but still doesn't really explain what the different test-sizes mean, but the code is available. The test results include Skylake, which is nearly the same as Haswell in this test.
#paulsm4's answer has a table for a multi-socket Nehalem Xeon, including some remote (other-socket) memory / L3 numbers.
If I remember correctly it's about 1-2 clock cycles but this is an estimate and newer caches may be faster. This is out of a Computer Architecture book I have and this is information for AMD so Intel may be slightly different but I would bound it between 5 and 15 clock cycles which seems like a good estimate to me.
EDIT: Whoops L2 is 10 cycles with TAG access, L1 takes 1 to two cycles, my mistake :\
Actually the cost of the L1 cache hit is almost the same as a cost of register access. It was surprising for me, but this is true, at least for my processor (Athlon 64). Some time ago I written a simple test application to benchmark efficiency of access to the shared data in a multiprocessor system. The application body is a simple memory variable incrementing during the predefined period of time. To make a comapison, I benchmarked non-shared variable at first. And during that activity I captured the result, but then during application disassembling I found that compiler was deceived my expectations and apply unwanted optimisation to my code. It just put variable in the CPU register and increment it iterativetly in the register without memory access. But real surprise was achived after I force compliler to use in-memory variable instead of register variable. On updated application I achived almost the same benchmarking results. Performance degradation was really negligeble (~1-2%) and looks like related to some side effect.
As result:
1) I think you can consider L1 cache as an unmanaged processor registers pool.
2) There is no any sence to apply brutal assambly optimization by forcing compiler store frequently accesing data in processor registers. If they are really frequently accessed, they will live in the L1 cache, and due to this will have same access cost as the processor register.

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