Related
I was recently doing a project euler problem (namely #31) which was basically finding out how many ways we can sum to 200 using elements of the set {1,2,5,10,20,50,100,200}.
The idea that I used was this: the number of ways to sum to N is equal to
(the number of ways to sum N-k) * (number of ways to sum k), summed over all possible values of k.
I realized that this approach is WRONG, namely due to the fact that it creates several several duplicate counts. I have tried to adjust the formula to avoid duplicates, but to no avail. I am seeking the wisdom of stack overflowers regarding:
whether my recursive approach is concerned with the correct subproblem to solve
If there exists one, what would be an effective way to eliminate duplicates
how should we approach recursive problems such that we are concerned with the correct subproblem? what are some indicators that we've chosen a correct (or incorrect) subproblem?
When trying to avoid duplicate permutations, a straightforward strategy that works in most cases is to only create rising or falling sequences.
In your example, if you pick a value and then recurse with the whole set, you will get duplicate sequences like 50,50,100 and 50,100,50 and 100,50,50. However, if you recurse with the rule that the next value should be equal to or smaller than the currently selected value, out of those three you will only get the sequence 100,50,50.
So an algorithm that counts only unique combinations would be e.g.:
function uniqueCombinations(set, target, previous) {
for all values in set not greater than previous {
if value equals target {
increment count
}
if value is smaller than target {
uniqueCombinations(set, target - value, value)
}
}
}
uniqueCombinations([1,2,5,10,20,50,100,200], 200, 200)
Alternatively, you can create a copy of the set before every recursion, and remove the elements from it that you don't want repeated.
The rising/falling sequence method also works with iterations. Let's say you want to find all unique combinations of three letters. This algorithm will print results like a,c,e, but not a,e,c or e,a,c:
for letter1 is 'a' to 'x' {
for letter2 is first letter after letter1 to 'y' {
for letter3 is first letter after letter2 to 'z' {
print [letter1,letter2,letter3]
}
}
}
m69 gives a nice strategy that often works, but I think it's worthwhile to better understand why it works. When trying to count items (of any kind), the general principle is:
Think of a rule that classifies any given item into exactly one of several non-overlapping categories. That is, come up with a list of concrete categories A, B, ..., Z that will make the following sentence true: An item is either in category A, or in category B, or ..., or in category Z.
Once you have done this, you can safely count the number of items in each category and add these counts together, comfortable in the knowledge that (a) any item that is counted in one category is not counted again in any other category, and (b) any item that you want to count is in some category (i.e., none are missed).
How could we form categories for your specific problem here? One way to do it is to notice that every item (i.e., every multiset of coin values that sums to the desired total N) either contains the 50-coin exactly zero times, or it contains it exactly once, or it contains it exactly twice, or ..., or it contains it exactly RoundDown(N / 50) times. These categories don't overlap: if a solution uses exactly 5 50-coins, it pretty clearly can't also use exactly 7 50-coins, for example. Also, every solution is clearly in some category (notice that we include a category for the case in which no 50-coins are used). So if we had a way to count, for any given k, the number of solutions that use coins from the set {1,2,5,10,20,50,100,200} to produce a sum of N and use exactly k 50-coins, then we could sum over all k from 0 to N/50 and get an accurate count.
How to do this efficiently? This is where the recursion comes in. The number of solutions that use coins from the set {1,2,5,10,20,50,100,200} to produce a sum of N and use exactly k 50-coins is equal to the number of solutions that sum to N-50k and do not use any 50-coins, i.e. use coins only from the set {1,2,5,10,20,100,200}. This of course works for any particular coin denomination that we could have chosen, so these subproblems have the same shape as the original problem: we can solve each one by simply choosing another coin arbitrarily (e.g. the 10-coin), forming a new set of categories based on this new coin, counting the number of items in each category and summing them up. The subproblems become smaller until we reach some simple base case that we process directly (e.g. no allowed coins left: then there is 1 item if N=0, and 0 items otherwise).
I started with the 50-coin (instead of, say, the largest or the smallest coin) to emphasise that the particular choice used to form the set of non-overlapping categories doesn't matter for the correctness of the algorithm. But in practice, passing explicit representations of sets of coins around is unnecessarily expensive. Since we don't actually care about the particular sequence of coins to use for forming categories, we're free to choose a more efficient representation. Here (and in many problems), it's convenient to represent the set of allowed coins implicitly as simply a single integer, maxCoin, which we interpret to mean that the first maxCoin coins in the original ordered list of coins are the allowed ones. This limits the possible sets we can represent, but here that's OK: If we always choose the last allowed coin to form categories on, we can communicate the new, more-restricted "set" of allowed coins to subproblems very succinctly by simply passing the argument maxCoin-1 to it. This is the essence of m69's answer.
There's some good guidance here. Another way to think about this is as a dynamic program. For this, we must pose the problem as a simple decision among options that leaves us with a smaller version of the same problem. It boils out to a certain kind of recursive expression.
Put the coin values c0, c1, ... c_(n-1) in any order you like. Then define W(i,v) as the number of ways you can make change for value v using coins ci, c_(i+1), ... c_(n-1). The answer we want is W(0,200). All that's left is to define W:
W(i,v) = sum_[k = 0..floor(200/ci)] W(i+1, v-ci*k)
In words: the number of ways we can make change with coins ci onward is to sum up all the ways we can make change after a decision to use some feasible number k of coins ci, removing that much value from the problem.
Of course we need base cases for the recursion. This happens when i=n-1: the last coin value. At this point there's a way to make change if and only if the value we need is an exact multiple of c_(n-1).
W(n-1,v) = 1 if v % c_(n-1) == 0 and 0 otherwise.
We generally don't want to implement this as a simple recursive function. The same argument values occur repeatedly, which leads to an exponential (in n and v) amount of wasted computation. There are simple ways to avoid this. Tabular evaluation and memoization are two.
Another point is that it is more efficient to have the values in descending order. By taking big chunks of value early, the total number of recursive evaluations is minimized. Additionally, since c_(n-1) is now 1, the base case is just W(n-1)=1. Now it becomes fairly obvious that we can add a second base case as an optimization: W(n-2,v) = floor(v/c_(n-2)). That's how many times the for loop will sum W(n-1,1) = 1!
But this is gilding a lilly. The problem is so small that exponential behavior doesn't signify. Here is a little implementation to show that order really doesn't matter:
#include <stdio.h>
#define n 8
int cv[][n] = {
{200,100,50,20,10,5,2,1},
{1,2,5,10,20,50,100,200},
{1,10,100,2,20,200,5,50},
};
int *c;
int w(int i, int v) {
if (i == n - 1) return v % c[n - 1] == 0;
int sum = 0;
for (int k = 0; k <= v / c[i]; ++k)
sum += w(i + 1, v - c[i] * k);
return sum;
}
int main(int argc, char *argv[]) {
unsigned p;
if (argc != 2 || sscanf(argv[1], "%d", &p) != 1 || p > 2) p = 0;
c = cv[p];
printf("Ways(%u) = %d\n", p, w(0, 200));
return 0;
}
Drumroll, please...
$ ./foo 0
Ways(0) = 73682
$ ./foo 1
Ways(1) = 73682
$ ./foo 2
Ways(2) = 73682
For an application I'm working on, I need to sample a small set of values from a very large data set, on the order of few hundred taken from about 60 trillion (and growing).
Usually I use the technique of seeing if a uniform random number r (0..1) is less than S/T, where S is the number of sample items I still need, and T is the number of items in the set that I haven't considered yet.
However, with this new data, I don't have time to roll the die for each value; there are too many. Instead, I want to generate a random number of entries to "skip", pick the value at the next position, and repeat. That way I can just roll the die and access the list S times. (S is the size of the sample I want.)
I'm hoping there's a straightforward way to do that and create an unbiased sample, along the lines of the S/T test.
To be honest, approximately unbiased would be OK.
This is related (more or less a follow-on) to this persons question:
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/350041/simple-random-sample-without-replacement
One more side question... the person who showed first showed this to me called it the "mailman's algorithm", but I'm not sure if he was pulling my leg. Is that right?
How about this:
precompute S random numbers from 0 to the size of your dataset.
order your numbers, low to high
store the difference between consecutive numbers as the skip size
iterate though the large dataset using the skip size above.
...The assumption being the order you collect the samples doesn't matter
So I thought about it, and got some help from http://math.stackexchange.com
It boils down to this:
If I picked n items randomly all at once, where would the first one land? That is, min({r_1 ... r_n}). A helpful fellow at math.stackexchange boiled it down to this equation:
x = 1 - (1 - r) ** (1 / n)
that is, the distribution would be 1 minus (1 - r) to the nth power. Then solve for x. Pretty easy.
If I generate a uniform random number and plug it in for r, this is distributed the same as min({r_1 ... r_n}) -- the same way that the lowest item would fall. Voila! I've just simulated picking the first item as if I had randomly selected all n.
So I skip over that many items in the list, pick that one, and then....
Repeat until n is 0
That way, if I have a big database (like Mongo), I can skip, find_one, skip, find_one, etc. Until I have all the items I need.
The only problem I'm having is that my implementation favors the first and last element in the list. But I can live with that.
In Python 2.7, my implementation looks like:
def skip(n):
"""
Produce a random number with the same distribution as
min({r_0, ... r_n}) to see where the next smallest one is
"""
r = numpy.random.uniform()
return 1.0 - (1.0 - r) ** (1.0 / n)
def sample(T, n):
"""
Take n items from a list of size T
"""
t = T
i = 0
while t > 0 and n > 0:
s = skip(n) * (t - n + 1)
i += s
yield int(i) % T
i += 1
t -= s + 1
n -= 1
if __name__ == '__main__':
t = [0] * 100
for c in xrange(10000):
for i in sample(len(t), 10):
t[i] += 1 # this is where we would read value i
pprint.pprint(t)
I want to pre-compute some values for each combination in a set of combinations. For example, when choosing 3 numbers from 0 to 12, I'll compute some value for each one:
>>> for n in choose(range(13), 3):
print n, foo(n)
(0, 1, 2) 78
(0, 1, 3) 4
(0, 1, 4) 64
(0, 1, 5) 33
(0, 1, 6) 20
(0, 1, 7) 64
(0, 1, 8) 13
(0, 1, 9) 24
(0, 1, 10) 85
(0, 1, 11) 13
etc...
I want to store these values in an array so that given the combination, I can compute its and get the value. For example:
>>> a = [78, 4, 64, 33]
>>> a[magic((0,1,2))]
78
What would magic be?
Initially I thought to just store it as a 3-d matrix of size 13 x 13 x 13, so I can easily index it that way. While this is fine for 13 choose 3, this would have way too much overhead for something like 13 choose 7.
I don't want to use a dict because eventually this code will be in C, and an array would be much more efficient anyway.
UPDATE: I also have a similar problem, but using combinations with repetitions, so any answers on how to get the rank of those would be much appreciated =).
UPDATE: To make it clear, I'm trying to conserve space. Each of these combinations actually indexes into something take up a lot of space, let's say 2 kilobytes. If I were to use a 13x13x13 array, that would be 4 megabytes, of which I only need 572 kilobytes using (13 choose 3) spots.
Here is a conceptual answer and a code based on how lex ordering works. (So I guess my answer is like that of "moron", except that I think that he has too few details and his links have too many.) I wrote a function unchoose(n,S) for you that works assuming that S is an ordered list subset of range(n). The idea: Either S contains 0 or it does not. If it does, remove 0 and compute the index for the remaining subset. If it does not, then it comes after the binomial(n-1,k-1) subsets that do contain 0.
def binomial(n,k):
if n < 0 or k < 0 or k > n: return 0
b = 1
for i in xrange(k): b = b*(n-i)/(i+1)
return b
def unchoose(n,S):
k = len(S)
if k == 0 or k == n: return 0
j = S[0]
if k == 1: return j
S = [x-1 for x in S]
if not j: return unchoose(n-1,S[1:])
return binomial(n-1,k-1)+unchoose(n-1,S)
def choose(X,k):
n = len(X)
if k < 0 or k > n: return []
if not k: return [[]]
if k == n: return [X]
return [X[:1] + S for S in choose(X[1:],k-1)] + choose(X[1:],k)
(n,k) = (13,3)
for S in choose(range(n),k): print unchoose(n,S),S
Now, it is also true that you can cache or hash values of both functions, binomial and unchoose. And what's nice about this is that you can compromise between precomputing everything and precomputing nothing. For instance you can precompute only for len(S) <= 3.
You can also optimize unchoose so that it adds the binomial coefficients with a loop if S[0] > 0, instead of decrementing and using tail recursion.
You can try using the lexicographic index of the combination. Maybe this page will help: http://saliu.com/bbs/messages/348.html
This MSDN page has more details: Generating the mth Lexicographical Element of a Mathematical Combination.
NOTE: The MSDN page has been retired. If you download the documentation at the above link, you will find the article on page 10201 of the pdf that is downloaded.
To be a bit more specific:
When treated as a tuple, you can order the combinations lexicographically.
So (0,1,2) < (0,1,3) < (0,1,4) etc.
Say you had the number 0 to n-1 and chose k out of those.
Now if the first element is zero, you know that it is one among the first n-1 choose k-1.
If the first element is 1, then it is one among the next n-2 choose k-1.
This way you can recursively compute the exact position of the given combination in the lexicographic ordering and use that to map it to your number.
This works in reverse too and the MSDN page explains how to do that.
Use a hash table to store the results. A decent hash function could be something like:
h(x) = (x1*p^(k - 1) + x2*p^(k - 2) + ... + xk*p^0) % pp
Where x1 ... xk are the numbers in your combination (for example (0, 1, 2) has x1 = 0, x2 = 1, x3 = 2) and p and pp are primes.
So you would store Hash[h(0, 1, 2)] = 78 and then you would retrieve it the same way.
Note: the hash table is just an array of size pp, not a dict.
I would suggest a specialised hash table. The hash for a combination should be the exclusive-or of the hashes for the values. Hashes for values are basically random bit-patterns.
You could code the table to cope with collisions, but it should be fairly easy to derive a minimal perfect hash scheme - one where no two three-item combinations give the same hash value, and where the hash-size and table-size are kept to a minimum.
This is basically Zobrist hashing - think of a "move" as adding or removing one item of the combination.
EDIT
The reason to use a hash table is that the lookup performance O(n) where n is the number of items in the combination (assuming no collisions). Calculating lexicographical indexes into the combinations is significantly slower, IIRC.
The downside is obviously the up-front work done to generate the table.
For now, I've reached a compromise: I have a 13x13x13 array which just maps to the index of the combination, taking up 13x13x13x2 bytes = 4 kilobytes (using short ints), plus the normal-sized (13 choose 3) * 2 kilobytes = 572 kilobytes, for a total of 576 kilobytes. Much better than 4 megabytes, and also faster than a rank calculation!
I did this partly cause I couldn't seem to get Moron's answer to work. Also this is more extensible - I have a case where I need combinations with repetitions, and I haven't found a way to compute the rank of those, yet.
What you want are called combinadics. Here's my implementation of this concept, in Python:
def nthresh(k, idx):
"""Finds the largest value m such that C(m, k) <= idx."""
mk = k
while ncombs(mk, k) <= idx:
mk += 1
return mk - 1
def idx_to_set(k, idx):
ret = []
for i in range(k, 0, -1):
element = nthresh(i, idx)
ret.append(element)
idx -= ncombs(element, i)
return ret
def set_to_idx(input):
ret = 0
for k, ck in enumerate(sorted(input)):
ret += ncombs(ck, k + 1)
return ret
I have written a class to handle common functions for working with the binomial coefficient, which is the type of problem that your problem falls under. It performs the following tasks:
Outputs all the K-indexes in a nice format for any N choose K to a file. The K-indexes can be substituted with more descriptive strings or letters. This method makes solving this type of problem quite trivial.
Converts the K-indexes to the proper index of an entry in the sorted binomial coefficient table. This technique is much faster than older published techniques that rely on iteration and it does not use very much memory. It does this by using a mathematical property inherent in Pascal's Triangle. My paper talks about this. I believe I am the first to discover and publish this technique, but I could be wrong.
Converts the index in a sorted binomial coefficient table to the corresponding K-indexes.
Uses Mark Dominus method to calculate the binomial coefficient, which is much less likely to overflow and works with larger numbers.
The class is written in .NET C# and provides a way to manage the objects related to the problem (if any) by using a generic list. The constructor of this class takes a bool value called InitTable that when true will create a generic list to hold the objects to be managed. If this value is false, then it will not create the table. The table does not need to be created in order to perform the 4 above methods. Accessor methods are provided to access the table.
There is an associated test class which shows how to use the class and its methods. It has been extensively tested with 2 cases and there are no known bugs.
To read about this class and download the code, see Tablizing The Binomial Coeffieicent.
It should not be hard to convert this class to C++.
I would like to randomly iterate through a range. Each value will be visited only once and all values will eventually be visited. For example:
class Array
def shuffle
ret = dup
j = length
i = 0
while j > 1
r = i + rand(j)
ret[i], ret[r] = ret[r], ret[i]
i += 1
j -= 1
end
ret
end
end
(0..9).to_a.shuffle.each{|x| f(x)}
where f(x) is some function that operates on each value. A Fisher-Yates shuffle is used to efficiently provide random ordering.
My problem is that shuffle needs to operate on an array, which is not cool because I am working with astronomically large numbers. Ruby will quickly consume a large amount of RAM trying to create a monstrous array. Imagine replacing (0..9) with (0..99**99). This is also why the following code will not work:
tried = {} # store previous attempts
bigint = 99**99
bigint.times {
x = rand(bigint)
redo if tried[x]
tried[x] = true
f(x) # some function
}
This code is very naive and quickly runs out of memory as tried obtains more entries.
What sort of algorithm can accomplish what I am trying to do?
[Edit1]: Why do I want to do this? I'm trying to exhaust the search space of a hash algorithm for a N-length input string looking for partial collisions. Each number I generate is equivalent to a unique input string, entropy and all. Basically, I'm "counting" using a custom alphabet.
[Edit2]: This means that f(x) in the above examples is a method that generates a hash and compares it to a constant, target hash for partial collisions. I do not need to store the value of x after I call f(x) so memory should remain constant over time.
[Edit3/4/5/6]: Further clarification/fixes.
[Solution]: The following code is based on #bta's solution. For the sake of conciseness, next_prime is not shown. It produces acceptable randomness and only visits each number once. See the actual post for more details.
N = size_of_range
Q = ( 2 * N / (1 + Math.sqrt(5)) ).to_i.next_prime
START = rand(N)
x = START
nil until f( x = (x + Q) % N ) == START # assuming f(x) returns x
I just remembered a similar problem from a class I took years ago; that is, iterating (relatively) randomly through a set (completely exhausting it) given extremely tight memory constraints. If I'm remembering this correctly, our solution algorithm was something like this:
Define the range to be from 0 to
some number N
Generate a random starting point x[0] inside N
Generate an iterator Q less than N
Generate successive points x[n] by adding Q to
the previous point and wrapping around if needed. That
is, x[n+1] = (x[n] + Q) % N
Repeat until you generate a new point equal to the starting point.
The trick is to find an iterator that will let you traverse the entire range without generating the same value twice. If I'm remembering correctly, any relatively prime N and Q will work (the closer the number to the bounds of the range the less 'random' the input). In that case, a prime number that is not a factor of N should work. You can also swap bytes/nibbles in the resulting number to change the pattern with which the generated points "jump around" in N.
This algorithm only requires the starting point (x[0]), the current point (x[n]), the iterator value (Q), and the range limit (N) to be stored.
Perhaps someone else remembers this algorithm and can verify if I'm remembering it correctly?
As #Turtle answered, you problem doesn't have a solution. #KandadaBoggu and #bta solution gives you random numbers is some ranges which are or are not random. You get clusters of numbers.
But I don't know why you care about double occurence of the same number. If (0..99**99) is your range, then if you could generate 10^10 random numbers per second (if you have a 3 GHz processor and about 4 cores on which you generate one random number per CPU cycle - which is imposible, and ruby will even slow it down a lot), then it would take about 10^180 years to exhaust all the numbers. You have also probability about 10^-180 that two identical numbers will be generated during a whole year. Our universe has probably about 10^9 years, so if your computer could start calculation when the time began, then you would have probability about 10^-170 that two identical numbers were generated. In the other words - practicaly it is imposible and you don't have to care about it.
Even if you would use Jaguar (top 1 from www.top500.org supercomputers) with only this one task, you still need 10^174 years to get all numbers.
If you don't belive me, try
tried = {} # store previous attempts
bigint = 99**99
bigint.times {
x = rand(bigint)
puts "Oh, no!" if tried[x]
tried[x] = true
}
I'll buy you a beer if you will even once see "Oh, no!" on your screen during your life time :)
I could be wrong, but I don't think this is doable without storing some state. At the very least, you're going to need some state.
Even if you only use one bit per value (has this value been tried yes or no) then you will need X/8 bytes of memory to store the result (where X is the largest number). Assuming that you have 2GB of free memory, this would leave you with more than 16 million numbers.
Break the range in to manageable batches as shown below:
def range_walker range, batch_size = 100
size = (range.end - range.begin) + 1
n = size/batch_size
n.times do |i|
x = i * batch_size + range.begin
y = x + batch_size
(x...y).sort_by{rand}.each{|z| p z}
end
d = (range.end - size%batch_size + 1)
(d..range.end).sort_by{rand}.each{|z| p z }
end
You can further randomize solution by randomly choosing the batch for processing.
PS: This is a good problem for map-reduce. Each batch can be worked by independent nodes.
Reference:
Map-reduce in Ruby
you can randomly iterate an array with shuffle method
a = [1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9]
a.shuffle!
=> [5, 2, 8, 7, 3, 1, 6, 4, 9]
You want what's called a "full cycle iterator"...
Here is psudocode for the simplest version which is perfect for most uses...
function fullCycleStep(sample_size, last_value, random_seed = 31337, prime_number = 32452843) {
if last_value = null then last_value = random_seed % sample_size
return (last_value + prime_number) % sample_size
}
If you call this like so:
sample = 10
For i = 1 to sample
last_value = fullCycleStep(sample, last_value)
print last_value
next
It would generate random numbers, looping through all 10, never repeating If you change random_seed, which can be anything, or prime_number, which must be greater than, and not be evenly divisible by sample_size, you will get a new random order, but you will still never get a duplicate.
Database systems and other large-scale systems do this by writing the intermediate results of recursive sorts to a temp database file. That way, they can sort massive numbers of records while only keeping limited numbers of records in memory at any one time. This tends to be complicated in practice.
How "random" does your order have to be? If you don't need a specific input distribution, you could try a recursive scheme like this to minimize memory usage:
def gen_random_indices
# Assume your input range is (0..(10**3))
(0..3).sort_by{rand}.each do |a|
(0..3).sort_by{rand}.each do |b|
(0..3).sort_by{rand}.each do |c|
yield "#{a}#{b}#{c}".to_i
end
end
end
end
gen_random_indices do |idx|
run_test_with_index(idx)
end
Essentially, you are constructing the index by randomly generating one digit at a time. In the worst-case scenario, this will require enough memory to store 10 * (number of digits). You will encounter every number in the range (0..(10**3)) exactly once, but the order is only pseudo-random. That is, if the first loop sets a=1, then you will encounter all three-digit numbers of the form 1xx before you see the hundreds digit change.
The other downside is the need to manually construct the function to a specified depth. In your (0..(99**99)) case, this would likely be a problem (although I suppose you could write a script to generate the code for you). I'm sure there's probably a way to re-write this in a state-ful, recursive manner, but I can't think of it off the top of my head (ideas, anyone?).
[Edit]: Taking into account #klew and #Turtle's answers, the best I can hope for is batches of random (or close to random) numbers.
This is a recursive implementation of something similar to KandadaBoggu's solution. Basically, the search space (as a range) is partitioned into an array containing N equal-sized ranges. Each range is fed back in a random order as a new search space. This continues until the size of the range hits a lower bound. At this point the range is small enough to be converted into an array, shuffled, and checked.
Even though it is recursive, I haven't blown the stack yet. Instead, it errors out when attempting to partition a search space larger than about 10^19 keys. I has to do with the numbers being too large to convert to a long. It can probably be fixed:
# partition a range into an array of N equal-sized ranges
def partition(range, n)
ranges = []
first = range.first
last = range.last
length = last - first + 1
step = length / n # integer division
((first + step - 1)..last).step(step) { |i|
ranges << (first..i)
first = i + 1
}
# append any extra onto the last element
ranges[-1] = (ranges[-1].first)..last if last > step * ranges.length
ranges
end
I hope the code comments help shed some light on my original question.
pastebin: full source
Note: PW_LEN under # options can be changed to a lower number in order to get quicker results.
For a prohibitively large space, like
space = -10..1000000000000000000000
You can add this method to Range.
class Range
M127 = 170_141_183_460_469_231_731_687_303_715_884_105_727
def each_random(seed = 0)
return to_enum(__method__) { size } unless block_given?
unless first.kind_of? Integer
raise TypeError, "can't randomly iterate from #{first.class}"
end
sample_size = self.end - first + 1
sample_size -= 1 if exclude_end?
j = coprime sample_size
v = seed % sample_size
each do
v = (v + j) % sample_size
yield first + v
end
end
protected
def gcd(a,b)
b == 0 ? a : gcd(b, a % b)
end
def coprime(a, z = M127)
gcd(a, z) == 1 ? z : coprime(a, z + 1)
end
end
You could then
space.each_random { |i| puts i }
729815750697818944176
459631501395637888351
189447252093456832526
919263002791275776712
649078753489094720887
378894504186913665062
108710254884732609237
838526005582551553423
568341756280370497598
298157506978189441773
27973257676008385948
757789008373827330134
487604759071646274309
217420509769465218484
947236260467284162670
677052011165103106845
406867761862922051020
136683512560740995195
866499263258559939381
596315013956378883556
326130764654197827731
55946515352016771906
785762266049835716092
515578016747654660267
...
With a good amount of randomness so long as your space is a few orders smaller than M127.
Credit to #nick-steele and #bta for the approach.
This isn't really a Ruby-specific answer but I hope it's permitted. Andrew Kensler gives a C++ "permute()" function that does exactly this in his "Correlated Multi-Jittered Sampling" report.
As I understand it, the exact function he provides really only works if your "array" is up to size 2^27, but the general idea could be used for arrays of any size.
I'll do my best to sort of explain it. The first part is you need a hash that is reversible "for any power-of-two sized domain". Consider x = i + 1. No matter what x is, even if your integer overflows, you can determine what i was. More specifically, you can always determine the bottom n-bits of i from the bottom n-bits of x. Addition is a reversible hash operation, as is multiplication by an odd number, as is doing a bitwise xor by a constant. If you know a specific power-of-two domain, you can scramble bits in that domain. E.g. x ^= (x & 0xFF) >> 5) is valid for the 16-bit domain. You can specify that domain with a mask, e.g. mask = 0xFF, and your hash function becomes x = hash(i, mask). Of course you can add a "seed" value into that hash function to get different randomizations. Kensler lays out more valid operations in the paper.
So you have a reversible function x = hash(i, mask, seed). The problem is that if you hash your index, you might end up with a value that is larger than your array size, i.e. your "domain". You can't just modulo this or you'll get collisions.
The reversible hash is the key to using a technique called "cycle walking", introduced in "Ciphers with Arbitrary Finite Domains". Because the hash is reversible (i.e. 1-to-1), you can just repeatedly apply the same hash until your hashed value is smaller than your array! Because you're applying the same hash, and the mapping is one-to-one, whatever value you end up on will map back to exactly one index, so you don't have collisions. So your function could look something like this for 32-bit integers (pseudocode):
fun permute(i, length, seed) {
i = hash(i, 0xFFFF, seed)
while(i >= length): i = hash(i, 0xFFFF, seed)
return i
}
It could take a lot of hashes to get to your domain, so Kensler does a simple trick: he keeps the hash within the domain of the next power of two, which makes it require very few iterations (~2 on average), by masking out the unnecessary bits. The final algorithm looks like this:
fun next_pow_2(length) {
# This implementation is for clarity.
# See Kensler's paper for one way to do it fast.
p = 1
while (p < length): p *= 2
return p
}
permute(i, length, seed) {
mask = next_pow_2(length)-1
i = hash(i, mask, seed) & mask
while(i >= length): i = hash(i, mask, seed) & mask
return i
}
And that's it! Obviously the important thing here is choosing a good hash function, which Kensler provides in the paper but I wanted to break down the explanation. If you want to have different random permutations each time, you can add a "seed" value to the permute function which then gets passed to the hash function.
How would you implement a random number generator that, given an interval, (randomly) generates all numbers in that interval, without any repetition?
It should consume as little time and memory as possible.
Example in a just-invented C#-ruby-ish pseudocode:
interval = new Interval(0,9)
rg = new RandomGenerator(interval);
count = interval.Count // equals 10
count.times.do{
print rg.GetNext() + " "
}
This should output something like :
1 4 3 2 7 5 0 9 8 6
Fill an array with the interval, and then shuffle it.
The standard way to shuffle an array of N elements is to pick a random number between 0 and N-1 (say R), and swap item[R] with item[N]. Then subtract one from N, and repeat until you reach N =1.
This has come up before. Try using a linear feedback shift register.
One suggestion, but it's memory intensive:
The generator builds a list of all numbers in the interval, then shuffles it.
A very efficient way to shuffle an array of numbers where each index is unique comes from image processing and is used when applying techniques like pixel-dissolve.
Basically you start with an ordered 2D array and then shift columns and rows. Those permutations are by the way easy to implement, you can even have one exact method that will yield the resulting value at x,y after n permutations.
The basic technique, described on a 3x3 grid:
1) Start with an ordered list, each number may exist only once
0 1 2
3 4 5
6 7 8
2) Pick a row/column you want to shuffle, advance it one step. In this case, i am shifting the second row one to the right.
0 1 2
5 3 4
6 7 8
3) Pick a row/column you want to shuffle... I suffle the second column one down.
0 7 2
5 1 4
6 3 8
4) Pick ... For instance, first row, one to the left.
2 0 7
5 1 4
6 3 8
You can repeat those steps as often as you want. You can always do this kind of transformation also on a 1D array. So your result would be now [2, 0, 7, 5, 1, 4, 6, 3, 8].
An occasionally useful alternative to the shuffle approach is to use a subscriptable set container. At each step, choose a random number 0 <= n < count. Extract the nth item from the set.
The main problem is that typical containers can't handle this efficiently. I have used it with bit-vectors, but it only works well if the largest possible member is reasonably small, due to the linear scanning of the bitvector needed to find the nth set bit.
99% of the time, the best approach is to shuffle as others have suggested.
EDIT
I missed the fact that a simple array is a good "set" data structure - don't ask me why, I've used it before. The "trick" is that you don't care whether the items in the array are sorted or not. At each step, you choose one randomly and extract it. To fill the empty slot (without having to shift an average half of your items one step down) you just move the current end item into the empty slot in constant time, then reduce the size of the array by one.
For example...
class remaining_items_queue
{
private:
std::vector<int> m_Items;
public:
...
bool Extract (int &p_Item); // return false if items already exhausted
};
bool remaining_items_queue::Extract (int &p_Item)
{
if (m_Items.size () == 0) return false;
int l_Random = Random_Num (m_Items.size ());
// Random_Num written to give 0 <= result < parameter
p_Item = m_Items [l_Random];
m_Items [l_Random] = m_Items.back ();
m_Items.pop_back ();
}
The trick is to get a random number generator that gives (with a reasonably even distribution) numbers in the range 0 to n-1 where n is potentially different each time. Most standard random generators give a fixed range. Although the following DOESN'T give an even distribution, it is often good enough...
int Random_Num (int p)
{
return (std::rand () % p);
}
std::rand returns random values in the range 0 <= x < RAND_MAX, where RAND_MAX is implementation defined.
Take all numbers in the interval, put them to list/array
Shuffle the list/array
Loop over the list/array
One way is to generate an ordered list (0-9) in your example.
Then use the random function to select an item from the list. Remove the item from the original list and add it to the tail of new one.
The process is finished when the original list is empty.
Output the new list.
You can use a linear congruential generator with parameters chosen randomly but so that it generates the full period. You need to be careful, because the quality of the random numbers may be bad, depending on the parameters.