In a particular scenario I found that a code has taken 20 CPU Years and 4 real Months time. My goal is to approximate the amount of processing power utilized considering the fact that all the processors were on 100% usage all the time. So, my approach is as follows,
20 CPU Years = 20 * 365 * 24 CPU Hours = 175,200 CPU Hours.
Now, 1 CPU Year means 1 GFLOP machine working for 1 real Hour. Which means, in this case, the work done is, 1 GFLOP machine working for 175,200 real Hours. But in reality it took 4 * 30 * 24 = 2,880 real hours. So, approximately 175,200/2,880 =(approx.) 61 GLFOP machine.
My question is am I doing the approximation correctly or misunderstanding some particular term as per the calculations given above ? Or I am mixing GFLOPS and GFLOP together ?
Definitions
My question is am I doing the approximation correctly or misunderstanding some particular term as per the calculations given above ?
"100% usage" may mean the CPU spent 20% of its time doing nothing waiting for data to be transferred to/from RAM (and/or branch mispredictions or other stalls), 10% of its time running faster than normal because other CPUs where actually doing nothing, and 15% of its time running slower than normal for power/temperature management reasons; and (depending on where you got that "100% usage" statistic) "100% usage" may be significantly more confusing (e.g. http://www.brendangregg.com/blog/2017-08-08/linux-load-averages.html ).
Depending on context; GFLOPS is either "theoretical maximum under perfect conditions that will never occur in practice" (worthless marketing hype); or a direct measurement of a specific case that ignores most of the work a CPU did (everything involving integers, all control flow, all data transfer, all memory management, ...)
In a particular scenario I found that a code has taken 20 CPU Years and 4 real Months time. My goal is to approximate the amount of processing power utilized.
From this; you might (or might not) be able to say "most of the work that CPUs did was discarded due to lockless algorithm retries and/or transactions that couldn't be committed; and (partly because the bottleneck was RAM bandwidth and partly because of the way SMT works on this system) it would have been 4 times as fast if half as many CPUs were used."
TL;DR: Approximating processor power is just an inconvenient way to obfuscate the (more useful) information that you started with (e.g. that a specific piece of code running on a specific piece of hardware that was working on a specific piece of data happened to take 4 months of real time).
Your Calculation:
Yes; you're mixing GFLOP and GFLOPS (e.g. GFLOPS = GFLOP per second; and a "1 GFLOP machine" is a computer that can do a billion floating point operations in an infinite amount of time, which is every computer), and the web page you linked to is making the same mistake (e.g. saying "a 1 GFLOP reference machine" when it should be saying "a 1 GFLOPS reference machine").
Note that there's no need to care about GFLOPS or GFLOP for the calculation you're doing: If something was supposed to take 20 "reference CPU years" and actually took 4 months (or 4/12 years); then you'd say that your hardware is equivalent to "20 / (4/12) = 60 reference CPUs". Of course this is horribly silly and it'd make more sense to say that your hardware happened to achieve 60 GFLOPS without bothering with the misleading "reference CPU" nonsense.
Related
When it comes to rating the performance of a processor, is calculating the Million Instructions Per Second (MIPS) a practical measure to use?
Or is finding the Execution Time (IC x CPI x 1/CR) the main thing to use?
Imagine you have one CPU that does 100 million tiny little instructions that don't do much on their own per second. Next; imagine you have another CPU where you need a quarter of the instructions to do the same work; which can do 50 million larger instructions per second. The second CPU has half as many MIPs but is twice as fast.
Now.. Imagine you have 2 CPUs that both execute the exact same instructions; where one CPU runs at 1 GHz, can do 5 instructions per cycle, and stalls rarely; and the other CPU runs at 4 GHz, can only do 2 instructions per cycle, and spends a lot more time stalled doing nothing (due to cache misses, branch mispredictions, etc). In this case the 1 GHz CPU might be significantly faster than the 4 GHz CPU.
Finally; imagine you have 2 CPUs that both execute the exact same instructions, both have exactly the same clock frequency, both execute the same number of instructions per cycle, and both spend exactly the same amount of time stalled. One CPU has overheats easily and had to "under-clock" itself to a crawl after 250 milliseconds of not being idle just to avoid melting itself, and the other CPU can go at max. speed continuously without ever overheating.
Execution time is how long it takes to do some work taking everything into account (and can be extremely different for different types of work); while MIPS is like a real estate agent determining how much a building is worth by measuring the weight of a rubber chicken.
From what I understand, to calculate CPI, it's the percentage of the type of instruction multiplied by the number of cycles right? Does the type of machine have any part of this calculation whatsoever?
I have a problem that asks me if a change should be recommended.
Machine 1: 40% R - 5 Cycles, 30% lw - 6 Cycles, 15% sw - 6 Cycles, 15% beq 3 - Cycles, on a 2.5 GHz machine
Machine 2: 40% R - 5 Cycles, 30% lw - 6 Cycles, 15% sw - 6 Cycles, 15% beq 4 - Cycles, on a 2.7 GHz machine
By my calculations, machine 1 has 5.15 CPI while machine 2 has 5.3 CPI. Is it okay to ignore the GHz of the machine and say that the change would not be a good idea or do I have to factor the machine in?
I think the point is to evaluate a design change that makes an instruction take more clocks, but allows you to raise the clock frequency. (i.e. leaning towards a speed-demon design like Pentium 4, instead of brainiac like Apple's A7/A8 ARM cores. http://www.lighterra.com/papers/modernmicroprocessors/)
So you need to calculate instructions per second to see which one will get more work done in the same amount of real time. i.e. (clock/sec) / (clocks/insn) = insn/sec, cancelling out the clocks from the units.
Your CPI calculation looks ok; I didn't check it, but yes a weighted average of the cycles according to the instruction mix.
These numbers are obviously super simplified; any CPU worth building at 2.5GHz would have some kind of branch prediction so the cost of a branch isn't just a 3 or 4 instruction bubble. And taking ~5 cycles per instruction on average is pathetic. (Most pipelined designs aim for at least 1 instruction per clock.)
Caches and superscalar CPUs also lead to complex interactions between instructions depending on whether they depend on earlier results or not.
But this is sort of like what you might do if considering increasing the L1d cache load-use latency by 1 cycle (for example), if that took it off the critical path and let you raise the clock frequency. Or vice versa, tightening up the latency or reducing the number of pipeline stages on something at the cost of reducing frequency.
Cycles per instruction a count of cycles. ghz doesnt matter as far as that average goes. But saying that we can see from your numbers that one instruction is more clocks but the processors are a different speed.
So while it takes more cycles to do the same job on the faster processor the speed of the processor DOES compensate for that so it seems clear this is a question about does the processor speed account for the extra clock?
5.15 cycles/instruction / 2.5 (giga) cycles/second, cycles cancels out you get
2.06 seconds/(giga) instruction or (nano) seconds/ instruction
5.30 / 2.7 = 1.96296 (nano) seconds / instruction
The faster one takes a slightly less amount of time so it will run the program faster.
Another way to see this to check the math.
For 100 clock cycles on the slower machine 15% of those are beq. So 15 of the 100 clocks, which is 5 beq instructions. The same 5 beq instructions take 20 clocks on the faster machine so 105 clocks total for the same instructions on the faster machine.
100 cycles at 2.5ghz vs 105 at 2.7ghz
we want the amount of time
hz is cycles / second we want seconds on the top
so we want
cycles / (cycles/second) to have cycles cancel out and have seconds on the top
1/2.5 = 0.400 (400 picoseconds)
1/2.7 = 0.370
0.400 * 100 = 40.00 units of time
0.370 * 105 = 38.85 units of time
So despite taking 5 more cycles the processor speed differences is fast enough to compensate.
2.7/2.5 = 1.08
105/100 = 1.05
so 2.5 * 1.05 = 2.625 so a processor 2.625ghz or faster would run that program faster.
Now what were the rules for changing computers, is less time defined as a reason to change computers? What is the definition of better? How much more power does the faster one consume it might take less time but the power consumption might not be linear so it may take more watts despite taking less time. I assume the question is not that detailed, meaning it is vague meaning it is a poorly written question on its own, so it goes to what the textbook or lecture defined as the threshold for change to the other processor.
Disclaimer, dont blame me if you miss this question on your homework/test.
Outside an academic exercise like this, the real world is full of pipelined processors (not all but most of the folks writing programs are writing programs for) and basically you cant put a number on clock cycles per instruction type in a way that you can do this calculation because of a laundry list of factors. Make sore you understand that, nice exercise, but that specific exercise is difficult and dangerous to attempt on real world processors. Dangerous in that as hard as you work you may be incorrectly measuring something and jumping to the wrong conclusions and as a result making bad recommendations. At the same time there is very much the reality that faster ghz does improve some percentage of the execution, but another percentage suffers, and is there a net gain or loss. Or a new processor design faster or slower may have features that perform better than an older processor, but not all feature will be better, there is a tradeoff and then we get into what "better" means.
I am running a Python program that calls H2O for deep learning (training and testing). The program runs in a loop of 20 iterations and in each loop calls H2ODeepLearningEstimator() 4 times and associated predict() and model_performance(). I am doing h2o.remove_all() and cleaning up all data-related Python objects after each iteration.
Data size: training set 80,000 with 122 features (all float) with 20% for validation (10-fold CV). test set 20,000. Doing binary classification.
Machine 1: Windows 7, 4 core, Xeon, each core 3.5GHz, Memory 32 GB
Takes about 24 hours to complete
Machine 2: CentOS 7, 20 core, Xeon, each core 2.0GHz, Memory 128 GB
Takes about 17 hours to complete
I am using h2o.init(nthreads=-1, max_mem_size = 96)
So, the speed-up is not that much.
My questions:
1) Is the speed-up typical?
2) What can I do to achieve substantial speed-up?
2.1) Will adding more cores help?
2.2) Are there any H2O configuration or tips that I am missing?
Thanks very much.
- Mohammad,
Graduate student
If the training time is the main effort, and you have enough memory, then the speed up will be proportional to cores times core-speed. So, you might have expected a 40/14 = 2.85 speed-up (i.e. your 24hrs coming down to the 8-10 hour range).
There is a typo in your h2o.init(): 96 should be "96g". However, I think that was a typo when writing the question, as h2o.init() would return an error message. (And H2O would fail to start if you'd tried "96", with the quotes but without the "g".)
You didn't show your h2o.deeplearning() command, but I am guessing you are using early stopping. And that can be unpredictable. So, what might have happened is that your first 24hr run did, say, 1000 epochs, but your second 17hr run did 2000 epochs. (1000 vs. 2000 would be quite an extreme difference, though.)
It might be that you are spending too much time scoring. If you've not touched the defaults, this is unlikely. But you could experiment with train_samples_per_iteration (e.g. set it to 10 times the number of your training rows).
What can I do to achieve substantial speed-up?
Stop using cross-validation. That might be a bit controversial, but personally I think 80,000 training rows is going to be enough to do an 80%/10%/10% split into train/valid/test. That will be 5-10 times quicker.
If it is for a paper, and you want to show more confidence in the results, once you have your final model, and you've checked that test score is close to valid score, then rebuild it a couple of times using a different seed for the 80/10/10 split, and confirm you end up with the same metrics. (*)
*: By the way, take a look at the score for each of the 10 cv models you've already made; if they are fairly close to each other, then this approach should work well. If they are all over the place, you might have to re-consider the train/valid/test splits - or just think about what it is in your data that might be causing that sensitivity.
simple problem from Wilkinson and Allen's Parallel Programming: Techniques and Applications Using Networked Workstations and Parallel Computers. Working through the exercises at the end of the first chapter and want to make sure that I'm on the right track. The full question is:
1-11 A multiprocessor consists of 10 processors, each capable of a peak execution rate of 200 MFLOPs (millions of floating point operations per second). What is the performance of the system as measured in MFLOPs when 10% of the code is sequential and 90% is parallelizable?
I assume the question wants me to find the number of operations per second of a serial processor which would take the same amount of time to run the program as the multiprocessor.
I think I'm right in thinking that 10% of the program is run at 200 MFLOPs, and 90% is run at 2,000 MFLOPs, and that I can average these speeds to find the performance of the multiprocessor in MFLOPs:
1/10 * 200 + 9/10 * 2000 = 1820 MFLOPs
So when running a program which is 10% serial and 90% parallelizable the performance of the multiprocessor is 1820 MFLOPs.
Is my approach correct?
ps: I understand that this isn't exactly how this would work in reality because it's far more complex, but I would like to know if I'm grasping the concepts.
Your calculation would be fine if 90% of the time, all 10 processors were fully utilized, and 10% of the time, just 1 processor was in use. However, I don't think that is a reasonable interpretation of the problem. I think it is more reasonable to assume that if a single processor were used, 10% of its computations would be on the sequential part, and 90% of its computations would be on the parallelizable part.
One possibility is that the sequential part and parallelizable parts can be run in parallel. Then one processor could run the sequential part, and the other 9 processors could do the parallelizable part. All processors would be fully used, and the result would be 2000 MFLOPS.
Another possibility is that the sequential part needs to be run first, and then the parallelizable part. If a single processor needed 1 hour to do the first part, and 9 hours to do the second, then it would take 10 processors 1 + 0.9 = 1.9 hours total, for an average of about (1*200 + 0.9*2000)/1.9 ~ 1053 MFLOPS.
In Vtune results what the numbers 0,1,2 (and 3) actually represent ?
What is the meaning of Blue bar over 0?
It's a histogram - each column represents the portion of time you spend while the variable (the one appearing below the graph) is at any given value.
The left one states that you spend roughly 1/3 of the time with 0 utilized logical CPUs (fully idle), and 2/3 of the time with 1 logical core operating. You never reach 2 simultaneously operating cores.
In the same manner, the right histogram says you spend ~25% of the time with zero active threads, and ~75% with one thread (there's a negligible portion with 2 threads).
Note that the total times are slightly different, and the portion of fully-idle time also varies a bit - if this is taken over the exact same run, then this discrepancy might be explained by the difference between the time when a core becomes active (waking up from a low power state), and the moment that the OS can schedule a thread to actually start running on it.