Algorithm for finding a linear dependence with strictly positive coefficients - algorithm

This must be surely well known, being a particular linear programming problem. What I want is a specific easy to implement efficient algorithm adapted to this very case, for relatively small sizes (about, say, ten vectors of dimension less than twenty).
I have vectors v(1), ..., v(m) of the same dimension. Want an
algorithm that produces strictly positive numbers c(1), ..., c(m)
such that c(1)v(1) + ... + c(m)v(m) is the zero vector, or tells for
sure that no such numbers exist.
What I found (in some clever code by a colleague) gives an approximate algorithm like this:
start with, say, c(1) = ... = c(m) = 1/m;
at each stage, given current approximation v = c(1)v(1) + ... + c(m)v(m), seek for j such that v - v(j) is longer than v(j).
If no such j exists then output "no solution" (or c(1), ..., c(m) if v is zero).
If such j exists, change v to the new approximation (1 - c)v + cv(j) with some small positive c.
This changes c(j) to (1 - c)c(j) + c and each other c(i) to (1 - c)c(i), so that the new coefficients will remain positive and strictly less than 1 (in fact they will sum to 1 all the time, i. e. we will remain in the convex hull of the v(i)).
Moreover the new v will have strictly smaller length, so eventually the algorithm will either discover that there is no solution or will produce arbitrarily small v.
Clearly this is incomplete and not satisfactory from several points of view. Can one do better?
Update
There are by now two useful answers; however one final step is missing.
They both boil down to the following (unless I miss some essential point).
Take a basis of the nullspace of v(1), ..., v(m).
One obtains a collection of not necessarily strictly positive solutions c(1), ..., c(m), c'(1), ..., c'(m), c''(1), ..., c''(m), ... such that any such solution is their linear combination (in a unique way). So we are reduced to the question whether this new collection of m-dimensional vectors admits a linear combination with strictly positive entries.
Example: take four 2d-vectors (2,1), (3,-1), (-1,2), (-3,-3). Their nullspace has a basis consisting of two solutions c = (12,-3,0,5), c' = (-1,1,1,0). None of these are strictly positive but their combination c + 4c' = (8,1,4,5) is. So the latter is the desired solution. But in general it might be not so easy to find out whether a strictly positive solution exists and if yes, how to find it.
As suggested in the answer by btilly one might use Fourier-Motzkin elimination for that, but again, I would be grateful for more details about it.

This is doable as follows.
First write your vectors as columns. Put them into a matrix. Now create a single column with entries c(1), c(2), ..., c(m_)). If you multiply that matrix times that column, you get your linear combination.
Now consider the elementary row operations. Multiply a row by a constant, swap two rows, add a multiple of one row to another. If you do an elementary row operation to the matrix, your linear combination after the row operation will be 0 if and only if it was before the row operation. Therefore doing elementary row operations DOESN'T CHANGE the coefficients that you're looking for.
Therefore you may simplify life by doing elementary row operations to put the matrix into reduced row echelon form. Once it is in reduced row echelon form, life gets easier. Columns which do not contain a pivot correspond to free coefficients. Columns which do contain a pivot correspond to coefficients that must be a specific linear combination of free coefficients. This reduces your problem being to find positive values for the free coefficients that make the others also positive. So you're now just solving a system of inequalities (and generally in far fewer variables).
Whether a system of linear inequalities has a solution can be answered with the FME method.

Denoting by A the matrix where the ith row is v(i) and by x the vector whose ith index is c(i), your problem can be describes as Ax = b where b=0 is the zero vector. The problem of Ax=b when b is not equal to zero is called the least squares problem (or the inhomogeneous least squares) and has a close form solution in the sense of Minimal Mean Square Error (MMSE). In your case however, b = 0 therefore we are in the homogeneous least squares problem. In Linear Algebra this can be looked as an eigenvalue problem, whose solution is the eigenvector x of the matrix A^TA whose eigenvalue is equal to 0. If no such eigenvalue exists, the MMSE solution will the the eigenvalue x whose matching eigenvalue is the smallest (closest to 0). A nice discussion on this topic is given here.
The solution is, as stated above, will be the eigenvector of A^TA with the lowest matching eigenvalue. This can be done using Singular Value Decomposition (SVD), which will decompose the matrix A into
The column of V matching with the lowest eigenvalue in the diagonal matrix Sigma will be your solution.
Explanation
When we want to minimize the Ax = 0 in the MSE sense, we can compute the vector derivative w.r.t x as follows:
Therefore, the eigenvector of A^TA matching the smallest eigenvalue will solve your problem.
Practical solution example
In python, you can use numpy.linalg.svd to perform the SVD decomposition. numpy orders the matrices U and V^T such that the leftmost column matches the largest eigenvalue and the rightmost column matches the lowest eigenvalue. Thus, you need to compute the SVD and take the rightmost column of the resulting V:
from numpy.linalg import svd
[_, _, vt] = svd(A)
x = vt[-1] # we take the last row since this is a transposed matrix, so the last column of V is the last row of V^T
One zero eigenvalue
In this case there is only one non trivial vector who solves the problem and the only way to satisfy the strictly positive condition will be if the values in the vector are all positive or all negative (multiplying the vector by -1 will not change the result)
Multiple zero eigenvalues
In the case where we have multiple zero eigenvalues, any of their matching eigenvectors is a possible solution and any linear combination of them. In this case one would have to check if there is a linear combination of these eigenvectors which creates a vector where all the values are strictly positive in order to satisfy the strictly positive condition.
How do we find the solution if one exists? once we are left with the basis of eigenvectors matching zero eigenvalue (also known as null-space) what we need to do is to solve a system of linear inequalities. I'll explain by example, since it will be clearer this way. Suppose we have the following matrix:
import numpy as np
A = np.array([[ 2, 3, -1, -3],
[ 1, -1, 2, -3]])
[_, Sigma, Vt] = np.linalg.svd(A) # Sigma has only 2 non-zero values, meaning that the null-space have a dimension of 2
We can extract the eigenvectors as explained above:
C = Vt[len(Sigma):]
# array([[-0.10292809, 0.59058542, 0.75313786, 0.27092073],
# [ 0.89356997, -0.15289589, 0.09399548, 0.4114856 ]])
What we want to find are two real coefficients, noted as x and y such that:
-0.10292809*x + 0.89356997*y > 0
0.59058542*x - 0.15289589*y > 0
0.75313786*x + 0.09399548*y > 0
0.27092073*x + 0.4114856*y > 0
We have a system of 4 inequalities with 2 variables, therefore in this case a solution is not promised. A solution can be found in many ways but I will propose the following. We can start with an initial guess and go over each hyperplane to check if the initial guess satisfies the inequality. if not we can reflect the guess to the other side of the hyperplane. After passing all the hyperplanes we check for a solution. (explanation of hot to reflect a point w.r.t a line can be found here). An example for python implementation will be:
import numpy as np
def get_strictly_positive(A):
[_, Sigma, Vt] = np.linalg.svd(A)
if len(Sigma[np.abs(Sigma) > 1e-5]) == Vt.shape[0]: # No zero eigenvalues, taking MMSE solution if exists
c = Vt[-1]
if np.sum(c > 0) == len(c) or np.sum(c < 0) == len(c):
return c if np.sum(c) == np.sum(abs(c)) else -1 * c
else:
return -1
# This means we have a zero solution
# Building matrix C of all the null-space basis vectors
C = Vt[len(Sigma[np.abs(Sigma) > 1e-5]):]
# 1. What we have here is a set of linear system of inequalities. Each equation inequality is a hyperplane and for
# each equation there is a valid half-space. We want to find the intersection of all the half-spaces, if it exists.
# 2. A vey important observations is that the basis of the null-space that we found using SVD is ORTHOGONAL!
coeffs = np.ones(C.shape[0]) # initial guess
for hyperplane in C.T:
if coeffs.dot(hyperplane) <= 0: # the guess is on the wrong side of the hyperplane
orthogonal_part = coeffs - (coeffs.dot(hyperplane) / hyperplane.dot(hyperplane)) * hyperplane
# reflecting the coefficients to the other side of the hyperplane
coeffs = 2 * orthogonal_part - coeffs
# If this yielded a solution, we return it
c = C.T.dot(coeffs)
if np.sum(c > 0) == len(c) or np.sum(c < 0) == len(c):
return c if np.sum(c) == np.sum(abs(c)) else -1 * c
else:
return -1
The equations are taken from one of my summaries and therefore I do not have a link to the source

Related

Shuffle a deck of card with equal likely to be 52 permutations [duplicate]

The famous Fisher-Yates shuffle algorithm can be used to randomly permute an array A of length N:
For k = 1 to N
Pick a random integer j from k to N
Swap A[k] and A[j]
A common mistake that I've been told over and over again not to make is this:
For k = 1 to N
Pick a random integer j from 1 to N
Swap A[k] and A[j]
That is, instead of picking a random integer from k to N, you pick a random integer from 1 to N.
What happens if you make this mistake? I know that the resulting permutation isn't uniformly distributed, but I don't know what guarantees there are on what the resulting distribution will be. In particular, does anyone have an expression for the probability distributions over the final positions of the elements?
An Empirical Approach.
Let's implement the erroneous algorithm in Mathematica:
p = 10; (* Range *)
s = {}
For[l = 1, l <= 30000, l++, (*Iterations*)
a = Range[p];
For[k = 1, k <= p, k++,
i = RandomInteger[{1, p}];
temp = a[[k]];
a[[k]] = a[[i]];
a[[i]] = temp
];
AppendTo[s, a];
]
Now get the number of times each integer is in each position:
r = SortBy[#, #[[1]] &] & /# Tally /# Transpose[s]
Let's take three positions in the resulting arrays and plot the frequency distribution for each integer in that position:
For position 1 the freq distribution is:
For position 5 (middle)
And for position 10 (last):
and here you have the distribution for all positions plotted together:
Here you have a better statistics over 8 positions:
Some observations:
For all positions the probability of
"1" is the same (1/n).
The probability matrix is symmetrical
with respect to the big anti-diagonal
So, the probability for any number in the last
position is also uniform (1/n)
You may visualize those properties looking at the starting of all lines from the same point (first property) and the last horizontal line (third property).
The second property can be seen from the following matrix representation example, where the rows are the positions, the columns are the occupant number, and the color represents the experimental probability:
For a 100x100 matrix:
Edit
Just for fun, I calculated the exact formula for the second diagonal element (the first is 1/n). The rest can be done, but it's a lot of work.
h[n_] := (n-1)/n^2 + (n-1)^(n-2) n^(-n)
Values verified from n=3 to 6 ( {8/27, 57/256, 564/3125, 7105/46656} )
Edit
Working out a little the general explicit calculation in #wnoise answer, we can get a little more info.
Replacing 1/n by p[n], so the calculations are hold unevaluated, we get for example for the first part of the matrix with n=7 (click to see a bigger image):
Which, after comparing with results for other values of n, let us identify some known integer sequences in the matrix:
{{ 1/n, 1/n , ...},
{... .., A007318, ....},
{... .., ... ..., ..},
... ....,
{A129687, ... ... ... ... ... ... ..},
{A131084, A028326 ... ... ... ... ..},
{A028326, A131084 , A129687 ... ....}}
You may find those sequences (in some cases with different signs) in the wonderful http://oeis.org/
Solving the general problem is more difficult, but I hope this is a start
The "common mistake" you mention is shuffling by random transpositions. This problem was studied in full detail by Diaconis and Shahshahani in Generating a random permutation with random transpositions (1981). They do a complete analysis of stopping times and convergence to uniformity. If you cannot get a link to the paper, then please send me an e-mail and I can forward you a copy. It's actually a fun read (as are most of Persi Diaconis's papers).
If the array has repeated entries, then the problem is slightly different. As a shameless plug, this more general problem is addressed by myself, Diaconis and Soundararajan in Appendix B of A Rule of Thumb for Riffle Shuffling (2011).
Let's say
a = 1/N
b = 1-a
Bi(k) is the probability matrix after i swaps for the kth element. i.e the answer to the question "where is k after i swaps?". For example B0(3) = (0 0 1 0 ... 0) and B1(3) = (a 0 b 0 ... 0). What you want is BN(k) for every k.
Ki is an NxN matrix with 1s in the i-th column and i-th row, zeroes everywhere else, e.g:
Ii is the identity matrix but with the element x=y=i zeroed. E.g for i=2:
Ai is
Then,
But because BN(k=1..N) forms the identity matrix, the probability that any given element i will at the end be at position j is given by the matrix element (i,j) of the matrix:
For example, for N=4:
As a diagram for N = 500 (color levels are 100*probability):
The pattern is the same for all N>2:
The most probable ending position for k-th element is k-1.
The least probable ending position is k for k < N*ln(2), position 1 otherwise
I knew I had seen this question before...
" why does this simple shuffle algorithm produce biased results? what is a simple reason? " has a lot of good stuff in the answers, especially a link to a blog by Jeff Atwood on Coding Horror.
As you may have already guessed, based on the answer by #belisarius, the exact distribution is highly dependent on the number of elements to be shuffled. Here's Atwood's plot for a 6-element deck:
What a lovely question! I wish I had a full answer.
Fisher-Yates is nice to analyze because once it decides on the first element, it leaves it alone. The biased one can repeatedly swap an element in and out of any place.
We can analyze this the same way we would a Markov chain, by describing the actions as stochastic transition matrices acting linearly on probability distributions. Most elements get left alone, the diagonal is usually (n-1)/n. On pass k, when they don't get left alone, they get swapped with element k, (or a random element if they are element k). This is 1/(n-1) in either row or column k. The element in both row and column k is also 1/(n-1). It's easy enough to multiply these matrices together for k going from 1 to n.
We do know that the element in last place will be equally likely to have originally been anywhere because the last pass swaps the last place equally likely with any other. Similarly, the first element will be equally likely to be placed anywhere. This symmetry is because the transpose reverses the order of matrix multiplication. In fact, the matrix is symmetric in the sense that row i is the same as column (n+1 - i). Beyond that, the numbers don't show much apparent pattern. These exact solutions do show agreement with the simulations run by belisarius: In slot i, The probability of getting j decreases as j raises to i, reaching its lowest value at i-1, and then jumping up to its highest value at i, and decreasing until j reaches n.
In Mathematica I generated each step with
step[k_, n_] := Normal[SparseArray[{{k, i_} -> 1/n,
{j_, k} -> 1/n, {i_, i_} -> (n - 1)/n} , {n, n}]]
(I haven't found it documented anywhere, but the first matching rule is used.)
The final transition matrix can be calculated with:
Fold[Dot, IdentityMatrix[n], Table[step[m, n], {m, s}]]
ListDensityPlot is a useful visualization tool.
Edit (by belisarius)
Just a confirmation. The following code gives the same matrix as in #Eelvex's answer:
step[k_, n_] := Normal[SparseArray[{{k, i_} -> (1/n),
{j_, k} -> (1/n), {i_, i_} -> ((n - 1)/n)}, {n, n}]];
r[n_, s_] := Fold[Dot, IdentityMatrix[n], Table[step[m, n], {m, s}]];
Last#Table[r[4, i], {i, 1, 4}] // MatrixForm
Wikipedia's page on the Fisher-Yates shuffle has a description and example of exactly what will happen in that case.
You can compute the distribution using stochastic matrices. Let the matrix A(i,j) describe the probability of the card originally at position i ending up in position j. Then the kth swap has a matrix Ak given by Ak(i,j) = 1/N if i == k or j == k, (the card in position k can end up anywhere and any card can end up at position k with equal probability), Ak(i,i) = (N - 1)/N for all i != k (every other card will stay in the same place with probability (N-1)/N) and all other elements zero.
The result of the complete shuffle is then given by the product of the matrices AN ... A1.
I expect you're looking for an algebraic description of the probabilities; you can get one by expanding out the above matrix product, but it I imagine it will be fairly complex!
UPDATE: I just spotted wnoise's equivalent answer above! oops...
I've looked into this further, and it turns out that this distribution has been studied at length. The reason it's of interest is because this "broken" algorithm is (or was) used in the RSA chip system.
In Shuffling by semi-random transpositions, Elchanan Mossel, Yuval Peres, and Alistair Sinclair study this and a more general class of shuffles. The upshot of that paper appears to be that it takes log(n) broken shuffles to achieve near random distribution.
In The bias of three pseudorandom shuffles (Aequationes Mathematicae, 22, 1981, 268-292), Ethan Bolker and David Robbins analyze this shuffle and determine that the total variation distance to uniformity after a single pass is 1, indicating that it is not very random at all. They give asympotic analyses as well.
Finally, Laurent Saloff-Coste and Jessica Zuniga found a nice upper bound in their study of inhomogeneous Markov chains.
This question is begging for an interactive visual matrix diagram analysis of the broken shuffle mentioned. Such a tool is on the page Will It Shuffle? - Why random comparators are bad by Mike Bostock.
Bostock has put together an excellent tool that analyzes random comparators. In the dropdown on that page, choose naïve swap (random ↦ random) to see the broken algorithm and the pattern it produces.
His page is informative as it allows one to see the immediate effects a change in logic has on the shuffled data. For example:
This matrix diagram using a non-uniform and very-biased shuffle is produced using a naïve swap (we pick from "1 to N") with code like this:
function shuffle(array) {
var n = array.length, i = -1, j;
while (++i < n) {
j = Math.floor(Math.random() * n);
t = array[j];
array[j] = array[i];
array[i] = t;
}
}
But if we implement a non-biased shuffle, where we pick from "k to N" we should see a diagram like this:
where the distribution is uniform, and is produced from code such as:
function FisherYatesDurstenfeldKnuthshuffle( array ) {
var pickIndex, arrayPosition = array.length;
while( --arrayPosition ) {
pickIndex = Math.floor( Math.random() * ( arrayPosition + 1 ) );
array[ pickIndex ] = [ array[ arrayPosition ], array[ arrayPosition ] = array[ pickIndex ] ][ 0 ];
}
}
The excellent answers given so far are concentrating on the distribution, but you have asked also "What happens if you make this mistake?" - which is what I haven't seen answered yet, so I'll give an explanation on this:
The Knuth-Fisher-Yates shuffle algorithm picks 1 out of n elements, then 1 out of n-1 remaining elements and so forth.
You can implement it with two arrays a1 and a2 where you remove one element from a1 and insert it into a2, but the algorithm does it in place (which means, that it needs only one array), as is explained here (Google: "Shuffling Algorithms Fisher-Yates DataGenetics") very well.
If you don't remove the elements, they can be randomly chosen again which produces the biased randomness. This is exactly what the 2nd example your are describing does. The first example, the Knuth-Fisher-Yates algorithm, uses a cursor variable running from k to N, which remembers which elements have already been taken, hence avoiding to pick elements more than once.

Find the m by m square that contains the most "conflicting pairs"?

There are two types of units on a 2d plane, green units (G) and red units (R).
The plane is represented as an n by n matrix, each unit is represented as an element in the matrix.
A pair of two units is called a "conflicting pair" if the two are of different colours. The goal is to find the m by m submatrix that contains the most "conflicting pairs".
Example
[R R 0 0 0
R R 0 0 0
0 0 R R 0
0 0 0 G G
0 0 0 G G]
In the above 5 by 5 matrix, the "most conflicting" 3 by 3 submatrix is at the lower right corner, where there are two red units and four green units, which amounts to 8 conflicting pairs within the submatrix.
A naive solution will take O(m^2n^2) for iterating every element in every possible submatrix.
I also thought of using dynamic programming like the Summed-area table algorithm, the time complexity will then be O(n^2), which looks good since it's already O(n^2) for scanning each element once.
However the n by n matrix may be large and sparse and given in a sparse format (like CSR), in that case an O(n^2) algorithm may not be efficient. Any suggeststions on how do I do better for sparse matrices (and dense matrices)?
If you have k non-empty cells (with R or G) then you can solve with time complexity O(k^2) (squeeze the matrix) because optimal submatrix has one non-empty cell on the border of the matrix.
Or time complexity maybe O(k * (log n)^2) if use two dimension sparse segments tree for getting sum on a rectangle.
The answer is given by
idx = argmax SUM(X_r,m) * SUM(X_g,m)
where SUM(X,m) returns a matrix with the summation of units in each m x m window, X_r and X_g are the matrices with only red and green units enabled respectively, and idx is the m x m window with the largest number of conflicting nodes.
The question then becomes can SUM(X,m) be more efficiently calculated for sparse matrices. I think the answer is: it really depends on the structure of X and the value of m.
An obvious way to make use of the sparsity of X is to compute SUM(X,m) by using the identity
SUM(X,m) = transpose(SUM1d( transpose(SUM1d(X,m) ), m )) (1)
where SUM1d(X,m) is the results of summing intervals of length m along rows of X. Clearly, SUM1d can be implemented in O(n) time for each row, and O(n^2) for the entire matrix, in a similar fashion to the Sum-Area-Table algorithm. This yields the same complexity O(n^2) for the entire algorithm. But that is rather uninteresting as it's the same runtime as a Sum-Area-Table algorithm.
What is interesting is asking whether SUM1d(X,m) can be implemented to take advantage of any sparsity of X. It's clear that SUM1d can be implemented to take full advantage of the sparsity of the input matrix; however, depending on the structure of X and the size of m the output matrix may not be sparse.
Assuming, m is much less than n then implementing SUM1d(X,m) as described in eq (1) above can be done in O(nz_row) time where nz_row is the max number of non-zero elements on any of the rows of X. Furthermore, SUM1d(X,m) will produce a sparse matrix, albeit with O(m) less sparsity. Since we assume m is much less than n this is still a sparse matrix and will still translate to efficiency gains.
Therefore, we should expect O(n*nz_row) for the first call to SUM1d in eq (1) and O(n*m*nz_col) for the second call to SUM1d.

Making a customizable LCG that travels backward and forward

How would i go about making an LCG (type of pseudo random number generator) travel in both directions?
I know that travelling forward is (a*x+c)%m but how would i be able to reverse it?
I am using this so i can store the seed at the position of the player in a map and be able to generate things around it by propogating backward and forward in the LCG (like some sort of randomized number line).
All LCGs cycle. In an LCG which achieves maximal cycle length there is a unique predecessor and a unique successor for each value x (which won't necessarily be true for LCGs that don't achieve maximal cycle length, or for other algorithms with subcycle behaviors such as von Neumann's middle-square method).
Suppose our LCG has cycle length L. Since the behavior is cyclic, that means that after L iterations we are back to the starting value. Finding the predecessor value by taking one step backwards is mathematically equivalent to taking (L-1) steps forward.
The big question is whether that can be converted into a single step. If you're using a Prime Modulus Multiplicative LCG (where the additive constant is zero), it turns out to be pretty easy to do. If xi+1 = a * xi % m, then xi+n = an * xi % m. As a concrete example, consider the PMMLCG with a = 16807 and m = 231-1. This has a maximal cycle length of m-1 (it can never yield 0 for obvious reasons), so our goal is to iterate m-2 times. We can precalculate am-2 % m = 1407677000 using readily available exponentiation/mod libraries. Consequently, a forward step is found as xi+1 = 16807 * xi % 231-1, while a backwards step is found as xi-1 = 1407677000 * xi % 231-1.
ADDITIONAL
The same concept can be extended to generic full-cycle LCGs by casting the transition in matrix form and doing fast matrix exponentiation to come up with the equivalent one-stage transform. The matrix formulation for xi+1 = (a * xi + c) % m is Xi+1 = T · Xi % m, where T is the matrix [[a c],[0 1]] and X is the column vector (x, 1) transposed. Multiple iterations of the LCG can be quickly calculated by raising T to any desired power through fast exponentiation techniques using squaring and halving the power. After noticing that powers of matrix T never alter the second row, I was able to focus on just the first row calculations and produced the following implementation in Ruby:
def power_mod(ary, mod, power)
return ary.map { |x| x % mod } if power < 2
square = [ary[0] * ary[0] % mod, (ary[0] + 1) * ary[1] % mod]
square = power_mod(square, mod, power / 2)
return square if power.even?
return [square[0] * ary[0] % mod, (square[0] * ary[1] + square[1]) % mod]
end
where ary is a vector containing a and c, the multiplicative and additive coefficients.
Using this with power set to the cycle length - 1, I was able to determine coefficients which yield the predecessor for various LCGs listed in Wikipedia. For example, to "reverse" the LCG with a = 1664525, c = 1013904223, and m = 232, use a = 4276115653 and c = 634785765. You can easily confirm that the latter set of coefficients reverses the sequence produced by using the original coefficients.

Efficient way to take determinant of an n! x n! matrix in Maple

I have a large matrix, n! x n!, for which I need to take the determinant. For each permutation of n, I associate
a vector of length 2n (this is easy computationally)
a polynomial of in 2n variables (a product of linear factors computed recursively on n)
The matrix is the evaluation matrix for the polynomials at the vectors (thought of as points). So the sigma,tau entry of the matrix (indexed by permutations) is the polynomial for sigma evaluated at the vector for tau.
Example: For n=3, if the ith polynomial is (x1 - 4)(x3 - 5)(x4 - 4)(x6 - 1) and the jth point is (2,2,1,3,5,2), then the (i,j)th entry of the matrix will be (2 - 4)(1 - 5)(3 - 4)(2 - 1) = -8. Here n=3, so the points are in R^(3!) = R^6 and the polynomials have 3!=6 variables.
My goal is to determine whether or not the matrix is nonsingular.
My approach right now is this:
the function point takes a permutation and outputs a vector
the function poly takes a permutation and outputs a polynomial
the function nextPerm gives the next permutation in lexicographic order
The abridged pseudocode version of my code is this:
B := [];
P := [];
w := [1,2,...,n];
while w <> NULL do
B := B append poly(w);
P := P append point(w);
w := nextPerm(w);
od;
// BUILD A MATRIX IN MAPLE
M := Matrix(n!, (i,j) -> eval(B[i],P[j]));
// COMPUTE DETERMINANT IN MAPLE
det := LinearAlgebra[Determinant]( M );
// TELL ME IF IT'S NONSINGULAR
if det = 0 then return false;
else return true; fi;
I'm working in Maple using the built in function LinearAlgebra[Determinant], but everything else is a custom built function that uses low level Maple functions (e.g. seq, convert and cat).
My problem is that this takes too long, meaning I can go up to n=7 with patience, but getting n=8 takes days. Ideally, I want to be able to get to n=10.
Does anyone have an idea for how I could improve the time? I'm open to working in a different language, e.g. Matlab or C, but would prefer to find a way to speed this up within Maple.
I realize this might be hard to answer without all the gory details, but the code for each function, e.g. point and poly, is already optimized, so the real question here is if there is a faster way to take a determinant by building the matrix on the fly, or something like that.
UPDATE: Here are two ideas that I've toyed with that don't work:
I can store the polynomials (since they take a while to compute, I don't want to redo that if I can help it) into a vector of length n!, and compute the points on the fly, and plug these values into the permutation formula for the determinant:
The problem here is that this is O(N!) in the size of the matrix, so for my case this will be O((n!)!). When n=10, (n!)! = 3,628,800! which is way to big to even consider doing.
Compute the determinant using the LU decomposition. Luckily, the main diagonal of my matrix is nonzero, so this is feasible. Since this is O(N^3) in the size of the matrix, that becomes O((n!)^3) which is much closer to doable. The problem, though, is that it requires me to store the whole matrix, which puts serious strain on memory, nevermind the run time. So this doesn't work either, at least not without a bit more cleverness. Any ideas?
It isn't clear to me if your problem is space or time. Obviously the two trade back and forth. If you only wish to know if the determinant is positive or not, then you definitely should go with LU decomposition. The reason is that if A = LU with L lower triangular and U upper triangular, then
det(A) = det(L) det(U) = l_11 * ... * l_nn * u_11 * ... * u_nn
so you only need to determine if any of the main diagonal entries of L or U is 0.
To simplify further, use Doolittle's algorithm, where l_ii = 1. If at any point the algorithm breaks down, the matrix is singular so you can stop. Here's the gist:
for k := 1, 2, ..., n do {
for j := k, k+1, ..., n do {
u_kj := a_kj - sum_{s=1...k-1} l_ks u_sj;
}
for i = k+1, k+2, ..., n do {
l_ik := (a_ik - sum_{s=1...k-1} l_is u_sk)/u_kk;
}
}
The key is that you can compute the ith row of U and the ith column of L at the same time, and you only need to know the previous row/column to move forward. This way you parallel process as much as you can and store as little as you need. Since you can compute the entries a_ij as needed, this requires you to store two vectors of length n while generating two more vectors of length n (rows of U, columns of L). The algorithm takes n^2 time. You might be able to find a few more tricks, but that depends on your space/time trade off.
Not sure if I've followed your problem; is it (or does it reduce to) the following?
You have two vectors of n numbers, call them x and c, then the matrix element is product over k of (x_k+c_k), with each row/column corresponding to distinct orderings of x and c?
If so, then I believe the matrix will be singular whenever there are repeated values in either x or c, since the matrix will then have repeated rows/columns. Try a bunch of Monte Carlo's on a smaller n with distinct values of x and c to see if that case is in general non-singular - it's quite likely if that's true for 6, it'll be true for 10.
As far as brute-force goes, your method:
Is a non-starter
Will work much more quickly (should be a few seconds for n=7), though instead of LU you might want to try SVD, which will do a much better job of letting you know how well behaved your matrix is.

What distribution do you get from this broken random shuffle?

The famous Fisher-Yates shuffle algorithm can be used to randomly permute an array A of length N:
For k = 1 to N
Pick a random integer j from k to N
Swap A[k] and A[j]
A common mistake that I've been told over and over again not to make is this:
For k = 1 to N
Pick a random integer j from 1 to N
Swap A[k] and A[j]
That is, instead of picking a random integer from k to N, you pick a random integer from 1 to N.
What happens if you make this mistake? I know that the resulting permutation isn't uniformly distributed, but I don't know what guarantees there are on what the resulting distribution will be. In particular, does anyone have an expression for the probability distributions over the final positions of the elements?
An Empirical Approach.
Let's implement the erroneous algorithm in Mathematica:
p = 10; (* Range *)
s = {}
For[l = 1, l <= 30000, l++, (*Iterations*)
a = Range[p];
For[k = 1, k <= p, k++,
i = RandomInteger[{1, p}];
temp = a[[k]];
a[[k]] = a[[i]];
a[[i]] = temp
];
AppendTo[s, a];
]
Now get the number of times each integer is in each position:
r = SortBy[#, #[[1]] &] & /# Tally /# Transpose[s]
Let's take three positions in the resulting arrays and plot the frequency distribution for each integer in that position:
For position 1 the freq distribution is:
For position 5 (middle)
And for position 10 (last):
and here you have the distribution for all positions plotted together:
Here you have a better statistics over 8 positions:
Some observations:
For all positions the probability of
"1" is the same (1/n).
The probability matrix is symmetrical
with respect to the big anti-diagonal
So, the probability for any number in the last
position is also uniform (1/n)
You may visualize those properties looking at the starting of all lines from the same point (first property) and the last horizontal line (third property).
The second property can be seen from the following matrix representation example, where the rows are the positions, the columns are the occupant number, and the color represents the experimental probability:
For a 100x100 matrix:
Edit
Just for fun, I calculated the exact formula for the second diagonal element (the first is 1/n). The rest can be done, but it's a lot of work.
h[n_] := (n-1)/n^2 + (n-1)^(n-2) n^(-n)
Values verified from n=3 to 6 ( {8/27, 57/256, 564/3125, 7105/46656} )
Edit
Working out a little the general explicit calculation in #wnoise answer, we can get a little more info.
Replacing 1/n by p[n], so the calculations are hold unevaluated, we get for example for the first part of the matrix with n=7 (click to see a bigger image):
Which, after comparing with results for other values of n, let us identify some known integer sequences in the matrix:
{{ 1/n, 1/n , ...},
{... .., A007318, ....},
{... .., ... ..., ..},
... ....,
{A129687, ... ... ... ... ... ... ..},
{A131084, A028326 ... ... ... ... ..},
{A028326, A131084 , A129687 ... ....}}
You may find those sequences (in some cases with different signs) in the wonderful http://oeis.org/
Solving the general problem is more difficult, but I hope this is a start
The "common mistake" you mention is shuffling by random transpositions. This problem was studied in full detail by Diaconis and Shahshahani in Generating a random permutation with random transpositions (1981). They do a complete analysis of stopping times and convergence to uniformity. If you cannot get a link to the paper, then please send me an e-mail and I can forward you a copy. It's actually a fun read (as are most of Persi Diaconis's papers).
If the array has repeated entries, then the problem is slightly different. As a shameless plug, this more general problem is addressed by myself, Diaconis and Soundararajan in Appendix B of A Rule of Thumb for Riffle Shuffling (2011).
Let's say
a = 1/N
b = 1-a
Bi(k) is the probability matrix after i swaps for the kth element. i.e the answer to the question "where is k after i swaps?". For example B0(3) = (0 0 1 0 ... 0) and B1(3) = (a 0 b 0 ... 0). What you want is BN(k) for every k.
Ki is an NxN matrix with 1s in the i-th column and i-th row, zeroes everywhere else, e.g:
Ii is the identity matrix but with the element x=y=i zeroed. E.g for i=2:
Ai is
Then,
But because BN(k=1..N) forms the identity matrix, the probability that any given element i will at the end be at position j is given by the matrix element (i,j) of the matrix:
For example, for N=4:
As a diagram for N = 500 (color levels are 100*probability):
The pattern is the same for all N>2:
The most probable ending position for k-th element is k-1.
The least probable ending position is k for k < N*ln(2), position 1 otherwise
I knew I had seen this question before...
" why does this simple shuffle algorithm produce biased results? what is a simple reason? " has a lot of good stuff in the answers, especially a link to a blog by Jeff Atwood on Coding Horror.
As you may have already guessed, based on the answer by #belisarius, the exact distribution is highly dependent on the number of elements to be shuffled. Here's Atwood's plot for a 6-element deck:
What a lovely question! I wish I had a full answer.
Fisher-Yates is nice to analyze because once it decides on the first element, it leaves it alone. The biased one can repeatedly swap an element in and out of any place.
We can analyze this the same way we would a Markov chain, by describing the actions as stochastic transition matrices acting linearly on probability distributions. Most elements get left alone, the diagonal is usually (n-1)/n. On pass k, when they don't get left alone, they get swapped with element k, (or a random element if they are element k). This is 1/(n-1) in either row or column k. The element in both row and column k is also 1/(n-1). It's easy enough to multiply these matrices together for k going from 1 to n.
We do know that the element in last place will be equally likely to have originally been anywhere because the last pass swaps the last place equally likely with any other. Similarly, the first element will be equally likely to be placed anywhere. This symmetry is because the transpose reverses the order of matrix multiplication. In fact, the matrix is symmetric in the sense that row i is the same as column (n+1 - i). Beyond that, the numbers don't show much apparent pattern. These exact solutions do show agreement with the simulations run by belisarius: In slot i, The probability of getting j decreases as j raises to i, reaching its lowest value at i-1, and then jumping up to its highest value at i, and decreasing until j reaches n.
In Mathematica I generated each step with
step[k_, n_] := Normal[SparseArray[{{k, i_} -> 1/n,
{j_, k} -> 1/n, {i_, i_} -> (n - 1)/n} , {n, n}]]
(I haven't found it documented anywhere, but the first matching rule is used.)
The final transition matrix can be calculated with:
Fold[Dot, IdentityMatrix[n], Table[step[m, n], {m, s}]]
ListDensityPlot is a useful visualization tool.
Edit (by belisarius)
Just a confirmation. The following code gives the same matrix as in #Eelvex's answer:
step[k_, n_] := Normal[SparseArray[{{k, i_} -> (1/n),
{j_, k} -> (1/n), {i_, i_} -> ((n - 1)/n)}, {n, n}]];
r[n_, s_] := Fold[Dot, IdentityMatrix[n], Table[step[m, n], {m, s}]];
Last#Table[r[4, i], {i, 1, 4}] // MatrixForm
Wikipedia's page on the Fisher-Yates shuffle has a description and example of exactly what will happen in that case.
You can compute the distribution using stochastic matrices. Let the matrix A(i,j) describe the probability of the card originally at position i ending up in position j. Then the kth swap has a matrix Ak given by Ak(i,j) = 1/N if i == k or j == k, (the card in position k can end up anywhere and any card can end up at position k with equal probability), Ak(i,i) = (N - 1)/N for all i != k (every other card will stay in the same place with probability (N-1)/N) and all other elements zero.
The result of the complete shuffle is then given by the product of the matrices AN ... A1.
I expect you're looking for an algebraic description of the probabilities; you can get one by expanding out the above matrix product, but it I imagine it will be fairly complex!
UPDATE: I just spotted wnoise's equivalent answer above! oops...
I've looked into this further, and it turns out that this distribution has been studied at length. The reason it's of interest is because this "broken" algorithm is (or was) used in the RSA chip system.
In Shuffling by semi-random transpositions, Elchanan Mossel, Yuval Peres, and Alistair Sinclair study this and a more general class of shuffles. The upshot of that paper appears to be that it takes log(n) broken shuffles to achieve near random distribution.
In The bias of three pseudorandom shuffles (Aequationes Mathematicae, 22, 1981, 268-292), Ethan Bolker and David Robbins analyze this shuffle and determine that the total variation distance to uniformity after a single pass is 1, indicating that it is not very random at all. They give asympotic analyses as well.
Finally, Laurent Saloff-Coste and Jessica Zuniga found a nice upper bound in their study of inhomogeneous Markov chains.
This question is begging for an interactive visual matrix diagram analysis of the broken shuffle mentioned. Such a tool is on the page Will It Shuffle? - Why random comparators are bad by Mike Bostock.
Bostock has put together an excellent tool that analyzes random comparators. In the dropdown on that page, choose naïve swap (random ↦ random) to see the broken algorithm and the pattern it produces.
His page is informative as it allows one to see the immediate effects a change in logic has on the shuffled data. For example:
This matrix diagram using a non-uniform and very-biased shuffle is produced using a naïve swap (we pick from "1 to N") with code like this:
function shuffle(array) {
var n = array.length, i = -1, j;
while (++i < n) {
j = Math.floor(Math.random() * n);
t = array[j];
array[j] = array[i];
array[i] = t;
}
}
But if we implement a non-biased shuffle, where we pick from "k to N" we should see a diagram like this:
where the distribution is uniform, and is produced from code such as:
function FisherYatesDurstenfeldKnuthshuffle( array ) {
var pickIndex, arrayPosition = array.length;
while( --arrayPosition ) {
pickIndex = Math.floor( Math.random() * ( arrayPosition + 1 ) );
array[ pickIndex ] = [ array[ arrayPosition ], array[ arrayPosition ] = array[ pickIndex ] ][ 0 ];
}
}
The excellent answers given so far are concentrating on the distribution, but you have asked also "What happens if you make this mistake?" - which is what I haven't seen answered yet, so I'll give an explanation on this:
The Knuth-Fisher-Yates shuffle algorithm picks 1 out of n elements, then 1 out of n-1 remaining elements and so forth.
You can implement it with two arrays a1 and a2 where you remove one element from a1 and insert it into a2, but the algorithm does it in place (which means, that it needs only one array), as is explained here (Google: "Shuffling Algorithms Fisher-Yates DataGenetics") very well.
If you don't remove the elements, they can be randomly chosen again which produces the biased randomness. This is exactly what the 2nd example your are describing does. The first example, the Knuth-Fisher-Yates algorithm, uses a cursor variable running from k to N, which remembers which elements have already been taken, hence avoiding to pick elements more than once.

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