You are given an array of n+2 elements. All elements of the array are in range 1 to n. And all elements occur once except two numbers which occur twice. Find the two repeating numbers.
For example, array = {4, 2, 4, 5, 2, 3, 1} and n = 5
Guys I know 4 probable solutions to this problem but recently i encountered a solution which i am not able to interpret .Below is an algorithm for the solution
traverse the list for i= 1st to n+2 elements
{
check for sign of A[abs(A[i])] ;
if positive then
make it negative by A[abs(A[i])]=-A[abs(A[i])];
else // i.e., A[abs(A[i])] is negative
this element (ith element of list) is a repetition
}
Example: A[] = {1,1,2,3,2}
i=1 ; A[abs(A[1])] i.e,A[1] is positive ; so make it negative ;
so list now is {-1,1,2,3,2}
i=2 ; A[abs(A[2])] i.e., A[1] is negative ; so A[i] i.e., A[2] is repetition,
now list is {-1,1,2,3,2}
i=3 ; list now becomes {-1,-1,2,3,2} and A[3] is not repeated
now list becomes {-1,-1,-2,3,2}
i=4 ;
and A[4]=3 is not repeated
i=5 ; we find A[abs(A[i])] = A[2] is negative so A[i]= 2 is a repetition,
This method modifies the original array.
How this algorithm is producing proper results i.e. how it is working.Guys don't take this as an Homework Question as this question has been recently asked in Microsoft's interview.
You are given an array of n+2
elements. All elements of the array
are in range 1 to n. And all elements
occur once except two numbers which
occur twice
Lets modify this slightly, and go with just n, not n+2, and the first part of the problem statement, it becomes
You are given an array of n
elements. All elements of the array
are in range 1 to n
So now you know you have an array, the numbers in the array start at 1 and go up by one for every item in the array. So if you have 10 items, the array will contain the numbers 1 to 10. 5 items, you have 1 to 5 and so forth.
It follows that the numbers stored in the array can be used to index the array. i.e. you can always say A[A[i]] where i <= size of A. e.g. A={5,3,4,1,2}; print A[A[2]]
Now, lets add in one duplicate number.
The algorithm takes the value of each number in the array, and visits that index. We know if we visit the same index twice, we know we have found a duplicate.
How do we know if we visit the same index twice?
Yup, we change the sign of the number in each index we visit, if the sign has already changed, we know we've already been here, ergo, this index (not the value stored at the index) is a duplicate number.
You could achieve the same result by keeping a second array of booleans, initialised to false. That algroithm becomes
A={123412}
B={false, false, false, false}
for(i = 1; i <= 4; i++)
{
if(B[A[i]])
// Duplicate
else
B[A[i]] = true;
}
However in the MS question you're changing the sign of the element in A instead of setting a boolean value in B.
Hope this helps,
What you are doing is using the array values in two ways: they have a number AND they have a sign. You 'store' the fact that you've seen a number n on the n-th spot in your array, without loosing the origional value in that spot: you're just changing the sign.
You start out with all positives, and if you find that your index you want to 'save' the fact you've seen your current value to is allready negative, then this value has allready be seen.
example:
So if you see 4 for the first time, you change the sign on the fourth spot to negative. That doesn't change the 4th spot, because you are using [abs] on that when you would go there, so no worries there.
If you see another 4, you check the 4th spot again, see that it is negative: presto: a double.
When you find some element in position i, let's say n, then you make A[abs(A(i))]=A[abs(n)] negative. So if you find another position j containing n, you will also check A[abs(A(j))]=A[abs(n)]. Since you find it negative, then n is repeated :)
the best approach for finding two repeated elements would be using XOR method.
This solution works only if array has positive integers and all the elements in the array are in range from 1 to n.
As we know A XOR A = 0. We have n + 2 elements in array with 2 repeated elements (say repeated elements are X and Y) and we know the range of elements are from 1 to n.
XOR all the numbers in array numbers from 1 to n. Result be X XOR Y.
1 XOR 1 = 0 and 1 XOR 0 = 1 with this logic in the result of X XOR Y if any kth bit is set to 1 implies either kth bit is 1 either in X or in Y not in both.
Use the above step to divide all the elements in array and from 1 to n into 2 groups, one group which has the elements for which the kth bit is set to 1 and second group which has the elements for which the kth bit is 0.
Let’s have that kth bit as right most set bit (Read how to find right most set bit)
Now we can claim that these two groups are responsible to produce X and Y.
Group -1: XOR all the elements whose kth bit is 1 will produce either X or Y.
Group -2: XOR all the elements whose kth bit is 0 will produce either X or Y.
See the diagram below for more understanding.(Click on the diagram to see it larger).
public class TwoRepeatingXOR {
public static void twoRepeating(int [] A, int n){
int XOR = A[0];
int right_most_bit, X=0, Y=0, size = A.length;
for (int i = 1; i <=n ; i++)
XOR ^= i;
for (int i = 0; i <size ; i++)
XOR ^= A[i];
//Now XOR contains the X XOR Y
//get the right most bit number
right_most_bit = XOR & ~(XOR-1);
//divide the elements into 2 groups based on the right most set bit
for (int i = 0; i <size ; i++) {
if((A[i] & right_most_bit)!=0)
X = X^A[i];
else
Y = Y^A[i];
}
for (int i = 1; i <=n ; i++) {
if((i&right_most_bit)!=0)
X = X^i;
else
Y = Y^i;
}
System.out.println("Two Repeated elements are: " + X + " and " + Y);
}
public static void main(String[] args) {
int [] A = {1,4,5,6,3,2,5,2};
int n = 6;
twoRepeating(A, n);
}
}
credits go to https://algorithms.tutorialhorizon.com/find-the-two-repeating-elements-in-a-given-array-6-approaches/
Simple, use a Hashtable.
For each item, check if it already exists O(1) , and if not, add it to the hashtable O(1).
When you find an item that already exists... that's it.
I know this isn't really an answer to your question, but if I actually had to write this code on a real project, I would start with a sort algo like quicksort, and in my comparison function something like,
int Compare(int l, int r)
{
if(l == r)
{
// duplicate; insert into duplicateNumbers array if it doesn't exist already.
// if we found 2 dupes, quit the sort altogether
}
return r - l;
}
I would file this into the "good balance between performance and maintainability" bucket of possible solutions.
Related
The problem I've seen is as bellow, anyone has some idea on it?
http://judgecode.com/problems/1011
Given a permutation of integers from 0 to n - 1, sorting them is easy. But what if you can only swap a pair of integers every time?
Please calculate the minimal number of swaps
One classic algorithm seems to be permutation cycles (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cycle_notation#Cycle_notation). The number of swaps needed equals the total number of elements subtracted by the number of cycles.
For example:
1 2 3 4 5
2 5 4 3 1
Start with 1 and follow the cycle:
1 down to 2, 2 down to 5, 5 down to 1.
1 -> 2 -> 5 -> 1
3 -> 4 -> 3
We would need to swap index 1 with 5, then index 5 with 2; as well as index 3 with index 4. Altogether 3 swaps or n - 2. We subtract n by the number of cycles since cycle elements together total n and each cycle represents a swap less than the number of elements in it.
Here is a simple implementation in C for the above problem. The algorithm is similar to User גלעד ברקן:
Store the position of every element of a[] in b[]. So, b[a[i]] = i
Iterate over the initial array a[] from left to right.
At position i, check if a[i] is equal to i. If yes, then keep iterating.
If no, then it's time to swap. Look at the logic in the code minutely to see how the swapping takes place. This is the most important step as both array a[] and b[] needs to be modified. Increase the count of swaps.
Here is the implementation:
long long sortWithSwap(int n, int *a) {
int *b = (int*)malloc(sizeof(int)*n); //create a temporary array keeping track of the position of every element
int i,tmp,t,valai,posi;
for(i=0;i<n;i++){
b[a[i]] = i;
}
long long ans = 0;
for(i=0;i<n;i++){
if(a[i]!=i){
valai = a[i];
posi = b[i];
a[b[i]] = a[i];
a[i] = i;
b[i] = i;
b[valai] = posi;
ans++;
}
}
return ans;
}
The essence of solving this problem lies in the following observation
1. The elements in the array do not repeat
2. The range of elements is from 0 to n-1, where n is the size of the array.
The way to approach
After you have understood the way to approach the problem ou can solve it in linear time.
Imagine How would the array look like after sorting all the entries ?
It will look like arr[i] == i, for all entries . Is that convincing ?
First create a bool array named FIX, where FIX[i] == true if ith location is fixed, initialize this array with false initially
Start checking the original array for the match arr[i] == i, till the time this condition holds true, eveything is okay. While going ahead with traversal of array also update the FIX[i] = true. The moment you find that arr[i] != i you need to do something, arr[i] must have some value x such that x > i, how do we guarantee that ? The guarantee comes from the fact that the elements in the array do not repeat, therefore if the array is sorted till index i then it means that the element at position i in the array cannot come from left but from right.
Now the value x is essentially saying about some index , why so because the array only has elements till n-1 starting from 0, and in the sorted arry every element i of the array must be at location i.
what does arr[i] == x means is that , not only element i is not at it's correct position but also the element x is missing from it's place.
Now to fix ith location you need to look at xth location, because maybe xth location holds i and then you will swap the elements at indices i and x, and get the job done. But wait, it's not necessary that the index x will hold i (and you finish fixing these locations in just 1 swap). Rather it may be possible that index x holds value y, which again will be greater than i, because array is only sorted till location i.
Now before you can fix position i , you need to fix x, why ? we will see later.
So now again you try to fix position x, and then similarly you will try fixing till the time you don't see element i at some location in the fashion told .
The fashion is to follow the link from arr[i], untill you hit element i at some index.
It is guaranteed that you will definitely hit i at some location while following in this way . Why ? try proving it, make some examples, and you will feel it
Now you will start fixing all the index you saw in the path following from index i till this index (say it j). Now what you see is that the path which you have followed is a circular one and for every index i, the arr[i] is tored at it's previous index (index from where you reached here), and Once you see that you can fix the indices, and mark all of them in FIX array to be true. Now go ahead with next index of array and do the same thing untill whole array is fixed..
This was the complete idea, but to only conunt no. of swaps, you se that once you have found a cycle of n elements you need n swaps, and after doing that you fix the array , and again continue. So that's how you will count the no. of swaps.
Please let me know if you have some doubts in the approach .
You may also ask for C/C++ code help. Happy to help :-)
Fibonacci sequence is obtained by starting with 0 and 1 and then adding the two last numbers to get the next one.
All positive integers can be represented as a sum of a set of Fibonacci numbers without repetition. For example: 13 can be the sum of the sets {13}, {5,8} or {2,3,8}. But, as we have seen, some numbers have more than one set whose sum is the number. If we add the constraint that the sets cannot have two consecutive Fibonacci numbers, than we have a unique representation for each number.
We will use a binary sequence (just zeros and ones) to do that. For example, 17 = 1 + 3 + 13. Then, 17 = 100101. See figure 2 for a detailed explanation.
I want to turn some integers into this representation, but the integers may be very big. How to I do this efficiently.
The problem itself is simple. You always pick the largest fibonacci number less than the remainder. You can ignore the the constraint with the consecutive numbers (since if you need both, the next one is the sum of both so you should have picked that one instead of the initial two).
So the problem remains how to quickly find the largest fibonacci number less than some number X.
There's a known trick that starting with the matrix (call it M)
1 1
1 0
You can compute fibbonacci number by matrix multiplications(the xth number is M^x). More details here: https://www.nayuki.io/page/fast-fibonacci-algorithms . The end result is that you can compute the number you're look in O(logN) matrix multiplications.
You'll need large number computations (multiplications and additions) if they don't fit into existing types.
Also store the matrices corresponding to powers of two you compute the first time, since you'll need them again for the results.
Overall this should be O((logN)^2 * large_number_multiplications/additions)).
First I want to tell you that I really liked this question, I didn't know that All positive integers can be represented as a sum of a set of Fibonacci numbers without repetition, I saw the prove by induction and it was awesome.
To respond to your question I think that we have to figure how the presentation is created. I think that the easy way to find this is that from the number we found the closest minor fibonacci item.
For example if we want to present 40:
We have Fib(9)=34 and Fib(10)=55 so the first element in the presentation is Fib(9)
since 40 - Fib(9) = 6 and (Fib(5) =5 and Fib(6) =8) the next element is Fib(5). So we have 40 = Fib(9) + Fib(5)+ Fib(2)
Allow me to write this in C#
class Program
{
static void Main(string[] args)
{
List<int> fibPresentation = new List<int>();
int numberToPresent = Convert.ToInt32(Console.ReadLine());
while (numberToPresent > 0)
{
int k =1;
while (CalculateFib(k) <= numberToPresent)
{
k++;
}
numberToPresent = numberToPresent - CalculateFib(k-1);
fibPresentation.Add(k-1);
}
}
static int CalculateFib(int n)
{
if (n == 1)
return 1;
int a = 0;
int b = 1;
// In N steps compute Fibonacci sequence iteratively.
for (int i = 0; i < n; i++)
{
int temp = a;
a = b;
b = temp + b;
}
return a;
}
}
Your result will be in fibPresentation
This encoding is more accurately called the "Zeckendorf representation": see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fibonacci_coding
A greedy approach works (see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zeckendorf%27s_theorem) and here's some Python code that converts a number to this representation. It uses the first 100 Fibonacci numbers and works correctly for all inputs up to 927372692193078999175 (and incorrectly for any larger inputs).
fibs = [0, 1]
for _ in xrange(100):
fibs.append(fibs[-2] + fibs[-1])
def zeck(n):
i = len(fibs) - 1
r = 0
while n:
if fibs[i] <= n:
r |= 1 << (i - 2)
n -= fibs[i]
i -= 1
return r
print bin(zeck(17))
The output is:
0b100101
As the greedy approach seems to work, it suffices to be able to invert the relation N=Fn.
By the Binet formula, Fn=[φ^n/√5], where the brackets denote the nearest integer. Then with n=floor(lnφ(√5N)) you are very close to the solution.
17 => n = floor(7.5599...) => F7 = 13
4 => n = floor(4.5531) => F4 = 3
1 => n = floor(1.6722) => F1 = 1
(I do not exclude that some n values can be off by one.)
I'm not sure if this is an efficient enough for you, but you could simply use Backtracking to find a(the) valid representation.
I would try to start the backtracking steps by taking the biggest possible fib number and only switch to smaller ones if the consecutive or the only once constraint is violated.
I am trying to find different sequences of fixed length which can be generated using the numbers from a given set (distinct elements) such that each element from set should appear in the sequence. Below is my logic:
eg. Let the set consists of S elements, and we have to generate sequences of length K (K >= S)
1) First we have to choose S places out of K and place each element from the set in random order. So, C(K,S)*S!
2) After that, remaining places can be filled from any values from the set. So, the factor
(K-S)^S should be multiplied.
So, overall result is
C(K,S)S!((K-S)^S)
But, I am getting wrong answer. Please help.
PS: C(K,S) : No. of ways selecting S elements out of K elements (K>=S) irrespective of order. Also, ^ : power symbol i.e 2^3 = 8.
Here is my code in python:
# m is the no. of element to select from a set of n elements
# fact is a list containing factorial values i.e. fact[0] = 1, fact[3] = 6& so on.
def ways(m,n):
res = fact[n]/fact[n-m+1]*((n-m)**m)
return res
What you are looking for is the number of surjective functions whose domain is a set of K elements (the K positions that we are filling out in the output sequence) and the image is a set of S elements (your input set). I think this should work:
static int Count(int K, int S)
{
int sum = 0;
for (int i = 1; i <= S; i++)
{
sum += Pow(-1, (S-i)) * Fact(S) / (Fact(i) * Fact(S - i)) * Pow(i, K);
}
return sum;
}
...where Pow and Fact are what you would expect.
Check out this this math.se question.
Here's why your approach won't work. I didn't check the code, just your explanation of the logic behind it, but I'm pretty sure I understand what you're trying to do. Let's take for example K = 4, S = {7,8,9}. Let's examine the sequence 7,8,9,7. It is a unique sequence, but you can get to it by:
Randomly choosing positions 1,2,3, filling them randomly with 7,8,9 (your step 1), then randomly choosing 7 for the remaining position 4 (your step 2).
Randomly choosing positions 2,3,4, filling them randomly with 8,9,7 (your step 1), then randomly choosing 7 for the remaining position 1 (your step 2).
By your logic, you will count it both ways, even though it should be counted only once as the end result is the same. And so on...
I am looking for an algorithm that can map a number to a unique permutation of a sequence. I have found out about Lehmer codes and the factorial number system thanks to a similar question, Fast permutation -> number -> permutation mapping algorithms, but that question doesn't deal with the case where there are duplicate elements in the sequence.
For example, take the sequence 'AAABBC'. There are 6! = 720 ways that could be arranged, but I believe there are only 6! / (3! * 2! * 1!) = 60 unique permutation of this sequence. How can I map a number to a permutation in these cases?
Edit: changed the term 'set' to 'sequence'.
From Permutation to Number:
Let K be the number of character classes (example: AAABBC has three character classes)
Let N[K] be the number of elements in each character class. (example: for AAABBC, we have N[K]=[3,2,1], and let N= sum(N[K])
Every legal permutation of the sequence then uniquely corresponds to a path in an incomplete K-way tree.
The unique number of the permutation then corresponds to the index of the tree-node in a post-order traversal of the K-ary tree terminal nodes.
Luckily, we don't actually have to perform the tree traversal -- we just need to know how many terminal nodes in the tree are lexicographically less than our node. This is very easy to compute, as at any node in the tree, the number terminal nodes below the current node is equal to the number of permutations using the unused elements in the sequence, which has a closed form solution that is a simple multiplication of factorials.
So given our 6 original letters, and the first element of our permutation is a 'B', we determine that there will be 5!/3!1!1! = 20 elements that started with 'A', so our permutation number has to be greater than 20. Had our first letter been a 'C', we could have calculated it as 5!/2!2!1! (not A) + 5!/3!1!1! (not B) = 30+ 20, or alternatively as
60 (total) - 5!/3!2!0! (C) = 50
Using this, we can take a permutation (e.g. 'BAABCA') and perform the following computations:
Permuation #= (5!/2!2!1!) ('B') + 0('A') + 0('A')+ 3!/1!1!1! ('B') + 2!/1!
= 30 + 3 +2 = 35
Checking that this works: CBBAAA corresponds to
(5!/2!2!1! (not A) + 5!/3!1!1! (not B)) 'C'+ 4!/2!2!0! (not A) 'B' + 3!/2!1!0! (not A) 'B' = (30 + 20) +6 + 3 = 59
Likewise, AAABBC =
0 ('A') + 0 'A' + '0' A' + 0 'B' + 0 'B' + 0 'C = 0
Sample implementation:
import math
import copy
from operator import mul
def computePermutationNumber(inPerm, inCharClasses):
permutation=copy.copy(inPerm)
charClasses=copy.copy(inCharClasses)
n=len(permutation)
permNumber=0
for i,x in enumerate(permutation):
for j in xrange(x):
if( charClasses[j]>0):
charClasses[j]-=1
permNumber+=multiFactorial(n-i-1, charClasses)
charClasses[j]+=1
if charClasses[x]>0:
charClasses[x]-=1
return permNumber
def multiFactorial(n, charClasses):
val= math.factorial(n)/ reduce(mul, (map(lambda x: math.factorial(x), charClasses)))
return val
From Number to Permutation:
This process can be done in reverse, though I'm not sure how efficiently:
Given a permutation number, and the alphabet that it was generated from, recursively subtract the largest number of nodes less than or equal to the remaining permutation number.
E.g. Given a permutation number of 59, we first can subtract 30 + 20 = 50 ('C') leaving 9. Then we can subtract 'B' (6) and a second 'B'(3), re-generating our original permutation.
Here is an algorithm in Java that enumerates the possible sequences by mapping an integer to the sequence.
public class Main {
private int[] counts = { 3, 2, 1 }; // 3 Symbols A, 2 Symbols B, 1 Symbol C
private int n = sum(counts);
public static void main(String[] args) {
new Main().enumerate();
}
private void enumerate() {
int s = size(counts);
for (int i = 0; i < s; ++i) {
String p = perm(i);
System.out.printf("%4d -> %s\n", i, p);
}
}
// calculates the total number of symbols still to be placed
private int sum(int[] counts) {
int n = 0;
for (int i = 0; i < counts.length; i++) {
n += counts[i];
}
return n;
}
// calculates the number of different sequences with the symbol configuration in counts
private int size(int[] counts) {
int res = 1;
int num = 0;
for (int pos = 0; pos < counts.length; pos++) {
for (int den = 1; den <= counts[pos]; den++) {
res *= ++num;
res /= den;
}
}
return res;
}
// maps the sequence number to a sequence
private String perm(int num) {
int[] counts = this.counts.clone();
StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(n);
for (int i = 0; i < n; ++i) {
int p = 0;
for (;;) {
while (counts[p] == 0) {
p++;
}
counts[p]--;
int c = size(counts);
if (c > num) {
sb.append((char) ('A' + p));
break;
}
counts[p]++;
num -= c;
p++;
}
}
return sb.toString();
}
}
The mapping used by the algorithm is as follows. I use the example given in the question (3 x A, 2 x B, 1 x C) to illustrate it.
There are 60 (=6!/3!/2!/1!) possible sequences in total, 30 (=5!/2!/2!/1!) of them have an A at the first place, 20 (=5!/3!/1!/1!) have a B at the first place, and 10 (=5!/3!/2!/0!) have a C at the first place.
The numbers 0..29 are mapped to all sequences starting with an A, 30..49 are mapped to the sequences starting with B, and 50..59 are mapped to the sequences starting with C.
The same process is repeated for the next place in the sequence, for example if we take the sequences starting with B we have now to map numbers 0 (=30-30) .. 19 (=49-30) to the sequences with configuration (3 x A, 1 x B, 1 x C)
A very simple algorithm to mapping a number for a permutation consists of n digits is
number<-digit[0]*10^(n-1)+digit[1]*10^(n-2)+...+digit[n]*10^0
You can find plenty of resources for algorithms to generate permutations. I guess you want to use this algorithm in bioinformatics. For example you can use itertools.permutations from Python.
Assuming the resulting number fits inside a word (e.g. 32 or 64 bit integer) relatively easily, then much of the linked article still applies. Encoding and decoding from a variable base remains the same. What changes is how the base varies.
If you're creating a permutation of a sequence, you pick an item out of your bucket of symbols (from the original sequence) and put it at the start. Then you pick out another item from your bucket of symbols and put it on the end of that. You'll keep picking and placing symbols at the end until you've run out of symbols in your bucket.
What's significant is which item you picked out of the bucket of the remaining symbols each time. The number of remaining symbols is something you don't have to record because you can compute that as you build the permutation -- that's a result of your choices, not the choices themselves.
The strategy here is to record what you chose, and then present an array of what's left to be chosen. Then choose, record which index you chose (packing it via the variable base method), and repeat until there's nothing left to choose. (Just as above when you were building a permuted sequence.)
In the case of duplicate symbols it doesn't matter which one you picked, so you can treat them as the same symbol. The difference is that when you pick a symbol which still has a duplicate left, you didn't reduce the number of symbols in the bucket to pick from next time.
Let's adopt a notation that makes this clear:
Instead of listing duplicate symbols left in our bucket to choose from like c a b c a a we'll list them along with how many are still in the bucket: c-2 a-3 b-1.
Note that if you pick c from the list, the bucket has c-1 a-3 b-1 left in it. That means next time we pick something, we have three choices.
But on the other hand, if I picked b from the list, the bucket has c-2 a-3 left in it. That means next time we pick something, we only have two choices.
When reconstructing the permuted sequence we just maintain the bucket the same way as when we were computing the permutation number.
The implementation details aren't trivial, but they're straightforward with standard algorithms. The only thing that might heckle you is what to do when a symbol in your bucket is no longer available.
Suppose your bucket was represented by a list of pairs (like above): c-1 a-3 b-1 and you choose c. Your resulting bucket is c-0 a-3 b-1. But c-0 is no longer a choice, so your list should only have two entries, not three. You could move the entire list down by 1 resulting in a-3 b-1, but if your list is long this is expensive. A fast an easy solution: move the last element of the bucket into the removed location and decrease your bucket size: c0 a-3 b-1 becomes b-1 a-3 <empty> or just b-1 a-3.
Note that we can do the above because it doesn't matter what order the symbols in the bucket are listed in, as long as it's the same way when we encode or decode the number.
As I was unsure of the code in gbronner's answer (or of my understanding), I recoded it in R as follows
ritpermz=function(n, parclass){
return(factorial(n) / prod(factorial(parclass)))}
rankum <- function(confg, parclass){
n=length(confg)
permdex=1
for (i in 1:(n-1)){
x=confg[i]
if (x > 1){
for (j in 1:(x-1)){
if(parclass[j] > 0){
parclass[j]=parclass[j]-1
permdex=permdex + ritpermz(n-i, parclass)
parclass[j]=parclass[j]+1}}}
parclass[x]=parclass[x]-1
}#}
return(permdex)
}
which does produce a ranking with the right range of integers
Original Problem:
I have 3 boxes each containing 200 coins, given that there is only one person who has made calls from all of the three boxes and thus there is one coin in each box which has same fingerprints and rest of all coins have different fingerprints. You have to find the coin which contains same fingerprint from all of the 3 boxes. So that we can find the fingerprint of the person who has made call from all of the 3 boxes.
Converted problem:
You have 3 arrays containing 200 integers each. Given that there is one and only one common element in these 3 arrays. Find the common element.
Please consider solving this for other than trivial O(1) space and O(n^3) time.
Some improvement in Pelkonen's answer:
From converted problem in OP:
"Given that there is one and only one common element in these 3 arrays."
We need to sort only 2 arrays and find common element.
If you sort all the arrays first O(n log n) then it will be pretty easy to find the common element in less than O(n^3) time. You can for example use binary search after sorting them.
Let N = 200, k = 3,
Create a hash table H with capacity ≥ Nk.
For each element X in array 1, set H[X] to 1.
For each element Y in array 2, if Y is in H and H[Y] == 1, set H[Y] = 2.
For each element Z in array 3, if Z is in H and H[Z] == 2, return Z.
throw new InvalidDataGivenByInterviewerException();
O(Nk) time, O(Nk) space complexity.
Use a hash table for each integer and encode the entries such that you know which array it's coming from - then check for the slot which has entries from all 3 arrays. O(n)
Use a hashtable mapping objects to frequency counts. Iterate through all three lists, incrementing occurrence counts in the hashtable, until you encounter one with an occurrence count of 3. This is O(n), since no sorting is required. Example in Python:
def find_duplicates(*lists):
num_lists = len(lists)
counts = {}
for l in lists:
for i in l:
counts[i] = counts.get(i, 0) + 1
if counts[i] == num_lists:
return i
Or an equivalent, using sets:
def find_duplicates(*lists):
intersection = set(lists[0])
for l in lists[1:]:
intersection = intersection.intersect(set(l))
return intersection.pop()
O(N) solution: use a hash table. H[i] = list of all integers in the three arrays that map to i.
For all H[i] > 1 check if three of its values are the same. If yes, you have your solution. You can do this check with the naive solution even, it should still be very fast, or you can sort those H[i] and then it becomes trivial.
If your numbers are relatively small, you can use H[i] = k if i appears k times in the three arrays, then the solution is the i for which H[i] = 3. If your numbers are huge, use a hash table though.
You can extend this to work even if you can have elements that can be common to only two arrays and also if you can have elements repeating elements in one of the arrays. It just becomes a bit more complicated, but you should be able to figure it out on your own.
If you want the fastest* answer:
Sort one array--time is N log N.
For each element in the second array, search the first. If you find it, add 1 to a companion array; otherwise add 0--time is N log N, using N space.
For each non-zero count, copy the corresponding entry into the temporary array, compacting it so it's still sorted--time is N.
For each element in the third array, search the temporary array; when you find a hit, stop. Time is less than N log N.
Here's code in Scala that illustrates this:
import java.util.Arrays
val a = Array(1,5,2,3,14,1,7)
val b = Array(3,9,14,4,2,2,4)
val c = Array(1,9,11,6,8,3,1)
Arrays.sort(a)
val count = new Array[Int](a.length)
for (i <- 0 until b.length) {
val j =Arrays.binarySearch(a,b(i))
if (j >= 0) count(j) += 1
}
var n = 0
for (i <- 0 until count.length) if (count(i)>0) { count(n) = a(i); n+= 1 }
for (i <- 0 until c.length) {
if (Arrays.binarySearch(count,0,n,c(i))>=0) println(c(i))
}
With slightly more complexity, you can either use no extra space at the cost of being even more destructive of your original arrays, or you can avoid touching your original arrays at all at the cost of another N space.
Edit: * as the comments have pointed out, hash tables are faster for non-perverse inputs. This is "fastest worst case". The worst case may not be so unlikely unless you use a really good hashing algorithm, which may well eat up more time than your sort. For example, if you multiply all your values by 2^16, the trivial hashing (i.e. just use the bitmasked integer as an index) will collide every time on lists shorter than 64k....
//Begineers Code using Binary Search that's pretty Easy
// bool BS(int arr[],int low,int high,int target)
// {
// if(low>high)
// return false;
// int mid=low+(high-low)/2;
// if(target==arr[mid])
// return 1;
// else if(target<arr[mid])
// BS(arr,low,mid-1,target);
// else
// BS(arr,mid+1,high,target);
// }
// vector <int> commonElements (int A[], int B[], int C[], int n1, int n2, int n3)
// {
// vector<int> ans;
// for(int i=0;i<n2;i++)
// {
// if(i>0)
// {
// if(B[i-1]==B[i])
// continue;
// }
// //The above if block is to remove duplicates
// //In the below code we are searching an element form array B in both the arrays A and B;
// if(BS(A,0,n1-1,B[i]) && BS(C,0,n3-1,B[i]))
// {
// ans.push_back(B[i]);
// }
// }
// return ans;
// }