enum vs immutable in D - enums

What's the difference between
enum i = 2;
enum s = "Hello";
and
immutable i = 2;
immutable s = "Hello";
in D 2.0?

An enum is a user-defined type, not a variable. enum e = 2; is a
short-hand for something like this enum : int { e = 2 } (i.e. an anonymous
enum with one member e), see the documentation.
By definition, all members of an anonymous enum are placed into the current
scope. So, e is a type member placed into the current scope, where it behaves
like a literal.
immutable i = 2; on the other hand actually creates a variable i of type int.
This difference has a couple of consequences:
enum e will have no memory location and no address (is no lvalue), since
neither a type nor its members have an address. I.e. you cannot do something
like auto ptr = &e; (just like you cannot do auto ptr = &2;). immutable
i on the other hand is a normal variable (just immutable).
As discussed by Jonathan,
immutable variables can be initialized at compile time or at run-time,
whereas a type (with all its members defining the type) must be known at
compile time.
The compiler can simply replace all appearances of e with 2. For i it
usually has to create a memory location (although an optimizing compiler
might be able to avoid this sometimes). For this reason, the workload during
compilation for an enum might be expected to be somewhat lower, and the
binary somewhat smaller.
There is a surprising difference for arrays. For enum uint[2] E = [0, 1]; and
immutable uint[2] I = [0, 1]; the access to the enum, e.g. E[0], can
be orders of magnitude slower than for the immutable array, e.g. I[0],
especially as the arrays E and I get bigger. This is so because for an
immutable array, it is just a normal array lookup to, say, a global
variable. For the enum however it looks like the array gets created every
time before it gets used, e.g. inside a function for a global enum (don't
ask me, why, but the compiler really seems to simply replace the appearance
with the value in this case, too). I have never tried but would guess that
the same applies to enum strings and other non-trivial types.
To sum up: when I use compile-time constants, I usually take enum unless
those constants are arrays or I need a memory location for some other reason.

enums are always initialized at compile time. So, they must be assigned values which can be created via CTFE (Compile Time Function Evaluation).
immutable variables can be initialized at runtime. If an immutable variable has a global lifetime (so it's a module variables or a static class or a static local variable), then it must be either be initialized at compile time or at runtime with a static constructor (though static local variables can't be assigned with a static constructor). If an immutable variable is a non-static local variable, then it's initialized at runtime (though if the value is a constant, then the compiler might optimize it and initialize it at compile time). So, you can create immutable local variables at runtime, unlike enums.
EDIT: One other case I forgot: immutable member variables must either be initialized directly with CTFE or initialized with an immutable constructor. If an immutable member varible is initialized directly with CTFE, then obviously that's done at compile time, whereas initializing it in an immutable constructor is done at runtime.

Related

memcpy from one type to another type. How do we access the destination afterwards?

uint32_t u32 = 0;
uint16_t u16[2];
static_assert(sizeof(u32) == sizeof(u16), "");
memcpy(u16, &u32, sizeof(u32)); // defined?
// if defined, how to we access the data from here on?
Is this defined behaviour? And, if so, what type of pointer may we use to access the target data after the memcpy?
Must we use uint16_t*, because that suitable for the declared type of u16?
Or must we use uint32_t*, because the type of the source data (the source data copied from by memcpy) is uint_32?
(Personally interested in C++11/C++14. But a discussion of related languages like C would be interesting also.)
Is this defined behavio[u]r?
Yes. memcpying into a pod is well-defined and you ensured that the sizing is the correct.
Must we use uint16_t*, because that suitable for the declared type of u16?
Yes, of course. u16 is an array of two uint16_ts so it must be accessed as such. Accessing it via a uint32_t* would be undefined behavior by the strict-aliasing rule.
It doesn't matter what the source type was. What matters is that you have an object of type uint16_t[2].
On the other hand, this:
uint32_t p;
new (&p) uint16_t(42);
std::cout << p;
is undefined behavior, because now there is an object of a different type whose lifetime has begin at &p and we're accessing it through the wrong type.
The C++ standard delegates to C standard:
The contents and meaning of the header <cstring> are the same as the C standard library header <string.h>.
The C standard specifies:
7.24.1/3 For all functions in this subclause, each character shall be interpreted as if it had the type unsigned char (and therefore every possible object representation is valid and has a different value).
So, to answer your question: Yes, the behaviour is defined.
Yes, uint16_t* is appropriate because uint16_t is the type of the object.
No, the type of the source doesn't matter.
C++ standard doesn't specify such thing as object without declared type or how it would behave. I interpret that to mean that the effective type is implementation defined for objects with no declared type.
Even in C, the source doesn't matter in this case. A more complete version of quote from C standard (draft, N1570) that you are concerned about, emphasis mine:
6.5/6 [...] If a value is copied into an object having no declared type using memcpy or memmove, or is copied as an array of character type, then the effective type of the modified object for that access and for subsequent accesses that do not modify the value is the effective type of the object from which the value is copied, if it has one. [...]
This rule doesn't apply, because objects in u16 do have a declared type

Is c++11 operator[] equivalent to emplace on map insertion?

For C++11, is there still a performance difference between the following?
(for std::map<Foo, std::vector<Bar> > as an example)
map[key] = myVector and map.emplace(key, myVector)
The part I'm not figuring out is the exact internal of operator[]. My understanding so far has been (when key doesn't exist):
Create a new key and the associated empty default vector in place inside the map
Return the reference of the associated empty vector
Assign myVector to the reference???
The point 3 is the part I couldn't understand, how can you assign a new value to a reference in the first place?
Though I cannot sort through point 3 I think somehow there's just a copy/move required. Assuming C++11 will be smart enough to know it's gonna be a move operation, is this whole "[]" assignment then already cheaper than insert()? Is it almost equivalent to emplace()? ---- default construction and move content over, versus construct vector with content directly in place?
There are a lot of differences between the two.
If you use operator[], then the map will default construct the value. The return value from operator[] will be this default constructed object, which will then use operator= to assign to it.
If you use emplace, the map will directly construct the value with the parameters you provide.
So the operator[] method will always use two-stage construction. If the default constructor is slow, or if copy/move construction is faster than copy/move assignment, then it could be problematic.
However, emplace will not replace the value if the provided key already exists. Whereas operator[] followed by operator= will always replace the value, whether there was one there or not.
There are other differences too. If copying/moving throws, emplace guarantees that the map will not be changed. By contrast, operator[] will always insert a default constructed element. So if the later copy/move assignment fails, then the map has already been changed. That key will exist with a default constructed value_type.
Really, performance is not the first thing you should be thinking about when deciding which one to use. You need to focus first on whether it has the desired behavior.
C++17 will provide insert_or_assign, which has the effect of map[] = v;, but with the exception safety of insert/emplace.
how can you assign a new value to a reference in the first place?
It's fundamentally no different from assigning to any non-const reference:
int i = 5;
int &j = i;
j = 30;
i == 30; //This is true.

In what way does this struct-field-aliasing code invoke Undefined Behavior

Given the code:
#include <stdlib.h>
#include <stdint.h>
typedef struct { int32_t x, y; } INTPAIR;
typedef struct { int32_t w; INTPAIR xy; } INTANDPAIR;
void foo(INTPAIR * s1, INTPAIR * s2)
{
s2->y++;
s1->x^=1;
s2->y--;
s1->x^=1;
}
int hey(int x)
{
static INTPAIR dummy;
void *p = calloc(sizeof (INTANDPAIR),1);
INTANDPAIR *p1 = p;
INTPAIR *p2a = p;
INTPAIR *p2b = &p1->xy;
p2b->x = x;
foo(p2b,p2a);
int result= p2b->x;
free(p);
return result;
}
#include <stdio.h>
int main(void)
{
for (int i=0; i<10; i++)
printf("%d.",hey(i));
}
Behavior depends upon gcc optimization level, which implies that gcc thinks
this code invokes Undefined Behavior (the definition of "foo" collapses to nothing, but interestingly the definition of "hey" increments the value passed in). I'm not quite sure what if anything it does that runs afoul of the Standard's rules, though.
The code very deliberately and evilly constructs two pointers such that
s2a->y and s2b->x will alias, but the pointers are deliberately constructed in such a way that both identify legitimate potential objects of type INTPAIR. Because code used calloc to get the memory, all field members have legitimate initial defined values of zero. All accesses to the allocated memory are done via an int32_t member of an INTPAIR*.
I can understand why it would make sense for the Standard to forbid aliasing structure fields in this fashion, but I couldn't find anything in the Standard which actually does so. Is gcc operating in Standard-compliant fashion here, or is it violating some clause in the Standard which isn't referenced by Annex J.2 and doesn't use any of the terms I searched for?
UPDATE:
I felt this answer was OK, but not still a little imprecise, and not cut and dry as to what the UB was. After a lot of very interesting discussion and comments I have tried again with a new answer
The right part of the C99 standard is quoted in this answer. I'm copying it here for convenience. The question and several of the answers are quite thorough.
(C99; ISO/IEC 9899:1999 6.5/7:
An object shall have its stored value accessed only by an lvalue
expression that has one of the following types 73) or 88):
a type compatible with the effective type of the object,
a qualified version of a type compatible with the effective type of
the object,
a type that is the signed or unsigned type corresponding to the
effective type of the object,
a type that is the signed or unsigned type corresponding to a
qualified version of the effective type of the object,
an aggregate or union type that includes one of the aforementioned
types among its members (including, recursively, a member of a
subaggregate or contained union), or
a character type.
73) or 88) The intent of this list is to specify those circumstances in which an object may or may not be aliased.
What is an effective type then? (C99; ISO/IEC 9899:1999 6.5/6:
The effective type of an object for an access to its stored value is the declared type of the object, if any. 87) If a value is stored into an object having no declared type through an lvalue having a type that is not a character type, then the type of the lvalue becomes the effective type of the object for that access and for subsequent accesses that do not modify the stored value. If a value is copied into an object having no declared type using memcpy or memmove, or is copied as an array of character type, then the effective type of the modified object for that access and for subsequent accesses that do not modify the value is the effective type of the object from which the value is copied, if it has one. For all other accesses to an object having no declared type, the effective type of the object is simply the type of the lvalue used for the access.
87) Allocated objects have no declared type.
So at the line p2b->x = x the object at p+4 becomes of effective type INTPAIR. Is it aligned correctly? If it isn't then Undefined Behavior (UB). But to keep it interesting, assume it is as it must be in this case because of the layout of INTANDPAIR.
By the same analysis there are two 8 byte objects, p2a (s2) at #(p+4) and p2b #p. As your example is demonstrating the 2nd element of p2a and the first of p2b end up being aliased.
In the foo(), the object p2b #p+4 is accessed by the normal method via s1->x. But then the "stored value" of object p2b is also accessed by a side effect of modifying a different object p2a #p. Since this falls under none of the bullets of 6.5/7, it is UB. Note that 6.5/7 says only, so objects shall not be accessed in any other ways.
I think the main distinction is that the "object" in question is the whole structure p2a/s2 and p2b/s1, not the integer members. If you change the argument of the function to take the integers and alias them it works "fine" because the function can't know s1 and s2 alias. For example:
void foo2(int *s1, int *s2)
{
(*s2)++;
(*s1)^=1;
(*s2)--;
(*s1)^=1;
}
...
/*foo(p2b,p2a);*/
foo2((int*)p, (int*)p); /* or p+4 or whatever you want */
This more or less confirms that this is the way GCC chose to interpret things: modifying a member is modifying the whole struct object and that since side effects of modifying one object are not on the listed legal ways to indirectly modify a different object, whee! we can do whatever silly thing we feel like doing.
So whether GCC interprets the ambiguities in standard to decide that by deriving s1 and s2 pointers through different typed pointers and then accessing them constitutes indirectly accessing the memory via different original types via p1 and p or whether it interprets the standard in the way I'm suggesting that "object" s2->y modifies is not just the integer but the s2 object, it is UB either way. Or is GCC just being especially snarky and pointing out that if the standard doesn't very clearly specify the semantics of dynamically allocated yet overlapping objects, it is free to do whatever it wants because by definition it is "undefined".
I don't think at this microscopic level anyone other than the standards body can definitively answer whether this should be UB or not because at this level it requires some "interpretation". The GCC's implementers opinion's seem to favor very aggressive interpretations.
I like Linus's reaction to this whole thing. And it is true, why not just be conservative and let the programmer tell the compiler when it is safe? Very Excellent Linus Rant
My previous answer was lacking, maybe not completely wrong, but the sample program is deliberately designed to sidestep each of the more obvious explicit Undefined Behaviors (UB) dictated by the C99 standard, like 6.5/7. But with both GCC (and Clang) this example demonstrates strict aliasing failure like symptoms under optimization. They appear to be assuming s1->y and s2-x can't alias. So, is the compiler wrong? Is this a loophole in the strict aliasing legalese?
Short answer: No. I wouldn't be surprised if there was a loophole of some kind in the standard, given its complexity. But in this example, creating overlapping objects on the heap is explicitly undefined behavior, and there are several other things happening that the standard does not define.
I think the point of the example is not that it fails - it is obvious that "playing fast and loose" with pointers is a bad idea and relying on corner cases and legalese to prove the compile "wrong" is of little help if the code doesn't work. The key questions are: is GCC wrong? and what in the standard says so.
First, lets look at the obvious strict aliasing rules and how this example is trying to avoid them.
C99 6.5/7:
An object shall have its stored value accessed only by an lvalue expression that has one of the following types: 76)
a type compatible with the effective type of the object,
a qualified version of a type compatible with the effective type of the object,
a type that is the signed or unsigned type corresponding to the effective type of the object,
a type that is the signed or unsigned type corresponding to a qualified version of the effective type of the object,
an aggregate or union type that includes one of the aforementioned types among its members (including, recursively, a member of a subaggregate or contained union), or
a character type.
This is the main strict aliasing section. It means that accessing the same memory via two different type pointers is UB. This example sidesteps it by accessing both using INTPAIR pointers in foo().
The key problem with this is that it is talking about accessing the stored value via two different effective types (e.g. pointers). It doesn't talk about accessing via two different objects.
What is being accessed? is it the integer member or the entire object s1 / s2? Is accessing s2->x via s1->y access via "a type compatible with the effective type of the object". I believe an argument can be made that a) the access as a side effect of modifying a different object does not fall under the permissible methods in 6.5/7 and that b) modifying one member of the aggregate transitively modifies the aggregate (*s1 or *s2) also.
Since this is not specified, it is UB, but it is a bit hand-wavy.
How did we get pointers to two overlapping objects? Are the pointer casts leading to them OK? Section 6.3.2.3 contains the rules for casting pointers and the example carefully does not violate any of them. In particular, because p2b is a pointer to INTANDPAIR member xy the alignment is guaranteed to be right, otherwise it would definitely run afoul of 6.3.2.3/7.
Furthermore, &p1->xy is not a problem - it can't be - it is a perfectly legitimate pointer to an INTPAIR. Simply casting pointers and/or taking addresses is safely outside the definition of "access" (3.1/1).
It is clear that the problem comes about by accessing two integer members that overlay each other as different parts of overlapping objects. Any attempt to do this via pointers of different types would clearly run afoul of 6.5/7. If accessed by the same type pointer at the same address, there would be no problem whatsoever. So the only way left that they could alias this way is that if two objects at different addresses overlapped in some fashion.
Obviously this could occur as part of a union, but that is not the case for this example. Type punning through unions may not be UB in C99, but it would be a different question whether a variant of this example could be made misbehave via unions.
The example uses dynamic allocation and casts the resultant void pointer to two different types. Going from from a pointer to an object to void * and back again is valid (6.3.2.3/1). Several other ways of obtaining pointers to objects that would overlap are explicitly UB by the pointer conversion rules of 6.3.2.3, the aliasing rules of 6.5/7, and/or the compatible type rules 6.2.7.
So what else is wrong?
6.2.4 Storage durations of objects
1 An object has a storage duration that determines its lifetime. There are three storage durations: static, automatic, and allocated. Allocated storage is described in 7.20.3
The storage for each of the objects is allocated by calloc() so the duration we want is "allocated". So we check 7.20.3: (emphasis added)
7.20.3 Memory management functions
1 The order and contiguity of storage allocated by successive calls to the calloc, malloc, and realloc functions is unspecified. The pointer returned if the allocation succeeds is suitably aligned so that it may be assigned to a pointer to any type of object and then used to access such an object or an array of such objects in the space allocated (until the space is explicitly deallocated). The lifetime of an allocated object extends from the allocation until the deallocation. Each such allocation shall yield a pointer to an object disjoint from any other object.
...
2 The lifetime of an object is the portion of program execution during which storage is guaranteed to be reserved for it. An object exists, has a constant address, 25) and retains its last-stored value throughout its lifetime. 26) If an object is referred to outside of its lifetime, the behavior is undefined.
To avoid UB, the accesses to the two different objects must be to a valid object within its lifetime. You can get a single valid object (or an array) with malloc()/calloc(), but these guarantee that you will receive a pointer disjoint from all other objects. So is the object returned from calloc() p or is it p1? It can't be both.
The UB is triggered by attempting to reuse the same dynamically allocated object to hold two objects that are not disjoint. While calloc() guarantees it will return a pointer to a disjoint object, there is nothing that says it will still work if you then start using parts of the buffer for a 2nd overlapping one. In fact, it even explicitly says it is UB if you access an object outside its lifetime and there is only a single allocation ergo a single lifetime.
Also note:
4. Conformance
In this International Standard, ‘‘shall’’ is to be interpreted as a requirement on an implementation or on a program; conversely, ‘‘shall not’’ is to be interpreted as a prohibition.
If a ‘‘shall’’ or ‘‘shall not’’ requirement that appears outside of a constraint is violated, the behavior is undefined. Undefined behavior is otherwise indicated in this International Standard by the words ‘‘undefined behavior’’ or by the omission of any explicit definition
of behavior. There is no difference in emphasis among these three; they all describe ‘‘behavior that is undefined’’.
For this to be a compiler error it must fail on a program that only uses constructs explicitly defined. Anything else is outside the safe-harbor and is still undefined, even if it the standard doesn't explicitly state that it is Undefined Behavior.

Does the actual value of a enum class enumeration remain constant/invariant?

Given code for an incomplete server like:
enum class Command : uint32_t {
LOGIN,
MESSAGE,
JOIN_CHANNEL,
PART_CHANNEL,
INVALID
};
Can I expect that converting Command::LOGIN to an integer will always give the same value?
Across compilers?
Across compiler versions?
If I add another enumeration?
If I remove an enumeration?
Converting Command::LOGIN would look something like this:
uint32_t number = static_cast<uint32_t>(Command::LOGIN);
Some extra information on what I am doing here. This enumeration is fed onto the wire by converting it to an integer sending it along to the server/client. I do not really particularly care what the number is, as long as it will always stay the same. If it will not stay the same, then obviously I will have to provide my own numbers through the usual way.
Now my sneaking suspicion is that it will change depending on what compiler was used to compile the code, but I would like to know for sure.
Bonus question: How does the compiler/language determine what number to use for Command::LOGIN?
Before submitting this question, I have noticed some changes from say 3137527848 to 0 and back, so it is obviously not valid to rely on it not changing. I am still curious about how this number is determined, and how or why that number is changing.
From the C++11 Standard (or rather, n3485):
[dcl.enum]/2
If the first enumerator has no initializer, the value of the corresponding constant is zero. An enumerator-definition without an initializer gives the enumerator the value obtained by increasing the value of the previous enumerator by one.
Additionally, [expr.static.cast]/9
A value of a scoped enumeration type can be explicitly converted to an integral type. The value is unchanged if the original value can be represented by the specified type.
I think it's obvious that the values of the enumerators can be represented by uint32_t; if they weren't, [dcl.enum]/5 says "if the initializing value of an enumerator cannot be represented by the underlying type, the program is ill-formed."
So as long as you use the underlying type for conversion (either explicitly or via std::underlying_type<Command>::type), the value of those enumerators are fixed as long as you don't add any enumerators before them (in the same enumeration) or alter their order.
As Nicolas Louis Guillemo pointed out, be aware of possible different endianness when transferring the value.
If you assign explicit integer values to your enum constants then you are guaranteed to always have the same value when converting to the integer type.
Just do something like the following:
enum class Command : uint32_t {
LOGIN = 12,
MESSAGE = 46,
JOIN_CHANNEL = 5,
PART_CHANNEL = 0,
INVALID = 42
};
If you don't specify any values explicitly, the values are set implicitly, starting from zero and increasing by one with each move down the list.
Quoting from draft n3485:
[dcl.enum] paragraph 2
The enumeration type declared with an enum-key of only enum is an
unscoped enumeration, and its enumerators are unscoped enumerators.
The enum-keys enum class and enum struct are semantically equivalent;
an enumeration type declared with one of these is a scoped
enumeration, and its enumerators are scoped enumerators. [...] The
identifiers in an enumerator-list are declared as constants, and can
appear wherever constants are required. An enumerator-definition with
= gives the associated enumerator the value indicated by the constant-expression. If the first enumerator has no initializer, the
value of the corresponding constant is zero. An
enumerator-definition without an initializer gives the enumerator the
value obtained by increasing the value of the previous enumerator by
one.
The drawback of relying on this, is that if the list order somehow changes in the future, then your code might silently break, so I would advise you be explicit.
Command::LOGIN will always be 0 as long as it's the first enum in the list. Just be careful with the rest of the enums, because they will have different binary representations based on if the computer is using big endian or little endian.

C++0x non-ambiguity of Generalized Initializers

I found a couple of example of the new Initializer Syntax using {...}. But the examples are quite old. I just want to cross-check -- is the current situation still as described?
In every context (especially templates), the following source fragments always are non-ambiguous -- no matter what T and v are.
T{v}; -- always constructs a temporary of type T and initialized it with value v.
T x{v}; -- initialized a variable x of type T with value v.
T x = {v}; -- same, because = is just optional here.
T a[] = {v}; -- initializes all elements of an array with the value v.
p = new T{v}; -- allocates an object of type T on the heap and initializes it with value v.
Therefore, it is still true, telling people "Prefer the {}-syntax, and your source code will not have different meanings, depending on what T and v are".
T x{v}; -- initialized a variable x of type T with value v.
T x = {v}; -- same, because = is just optional here.
As far as N3291 (the last working draft before the final standard) is concerned, these are not the same for all possible v and T.
The principle difference is the following. The first is an explicit constructor call, and it therefore may select a constructor declared explicit. The second is not an explicit constructor call (even though it will call a constructor). Therefore it cannot select explicit constructors.
From 13.3.1.7:
In copy-list-initialization, the candidate functions are all the constructors of T. However, if an explicit constructor is chosen, the initialization is ill-formed.
The purpose of this is to ensure that you cannot accidentally perform an explicit conversion of a value when using copy initialization, even with {} syntax.

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