I am reading abook on algorithms. It is mentioned in shell sort as below
An important property of Shellsort (which we state without proof) is
that an (h subscipt k) hk-sorted file that is then (h subsciprt (k-1))
hk-1-sorted remains hk-sorted. If this were not the case, the
algorithm would likely be of little value, since work done by early
phases would be undone by later phases.
My question is what does author mean by above statement?
Thanks!
Shell sort is a multi-pass sorting algorithm. It works by sorting a subset of the array at a particular integer "stride" value k, i.e. only accessing every kth element in the array.
Initially a large value for the stride is used, on subsequent passes this stride value is decreased until the final pass is run with a stride of 1 (which is typically just a standard insertion sort phase) and the array is fully sorted.
The statement you've asked about merely says that any sorting that was done on earlier passes (larger stride values) is preserved by later passes (smaller stride values). If this wasn't the case there would be no point in the multi-pass approach used by shell sort.
Hope this helps.
Related
The problem is to find out all the sequences of length k in a given DNA sequence which occur more than once. I found a approach of using a rolling hash function, where for each sequence of length k, hash is computed and is stored in a map. To check if the current sequence is a repetition, we compute it's hash and check if the hash already exist in the hash map. If yes, then we include this sequence in our result, otherwise add it to the hash map.
Rolling hash here means, when moving on to the next sequence by sliding the window by one, we use the hash of previous sequence in a way that we remove the contribution of the first character of previous sequence and add the contribution of the newly added char i.e. the last character of the new sequence.
Input: AAAAACCCCCAAAAACCCCCCAAAAAGGGTTT
and k=10
Answer: {AAAAACCCCC, CCCCCAAAAA}
This algorithm looks perfect, but I can't go about making a perfect hash function so that collisions are avoided. It would be a great help if somebody can explain how to make a perfect hash under any circumstance and most importantly in this case.
This is actually a research problem.
Let's come to terms with some facts
Input = N, Input length = |N|
You have to move a size k, here k=10, sliding window over the input. Therefore you must live with O(|N|) or more.
Your rolling hash is a form of locality sensitive deterministic hashing, the downside of deterministic hashing is the benefit of hashing is greatly diminished as the more often you encounter similar strings the harder it will be to hash
The longer your input the less effective hashing will be
Given these facts "rolling hashes" will soon fail. You cannot design a rolling hash that will even work for 1/10th of a chromosome.
SO what alternatives do you have?
Bloom Filters. They are much more robust than simple hashing. The downside is sometimes they have a false positives. But this can be mitigated by using several filters.
Cuckoo Hashes similar to bloom filters, but use less memory and have locality sensitive "hashing" and worst case constant lookup time
Just stick every suffix in a suffix trie. Once this is done, just output every string at depth 10 that also has atleast 2 children with one of the children being a leaf.
Improve on the suffix trie with a suffix tree. Lookup is not as straightforward but memory consumption is less.
My favorite the FM-Index. In my opinion the cleanest solution uses the Burrows Wheeler Transform. This technique is also used in industryu tools like Bowtie and BWA
Heads-up: This is not a general solution, but a good trick that you can use when k is not large.
The trick is to encrypt the sequence into an integer by bit manipulation.
If your input k is relatively small, let's say around 10. Then you can encrypt your DNA sequence in an int via bit manipulation. Since for each character in the sequence, there are only 4 possibilities, A, C, G, T. You can simply make your own mapping which uses 2 bits to represent a letter.
For example: 00 -> A, 01 -> C, 10 -> G, 11 -> T.
In this way, if k is 10, you won't need a string with 10 characters as hash key. Instead, you can only use 20 bits in an integer to represent the previous key string.
Then when you do your rolling hash, you left shift the integer that stores your previous sequence for 2 bits, then use any bit operations like |= to set the last two bits with your new character. And remember to clear the 2 left most bits that you just shifted, meaning you are removing them from your sliding window.
By doing this, a string could be stored in an integer, and using that integer as hash key might be nicer and cheaper in terms of the complexity of the hash function computation. If your input length k is slightly longer than 16, you may be able to use a long value. Otherwise, you might be able to use a bitset or a bitarray. But to hash them becomes another issue.
Therefore, I'd say this solution is a nice attempt for this problem when the sequence length is relatively small, i.e. can be stored in a single integer or long integer.
You can build the suffix array and the LCP array. Iterate through the LCP array, every time you see a value greater or equal to k, report the string referred to by that position (using the suffix array to determine where the substring comes from).
After you report a substring because the LCP was greater or equal to k, ignore all following values until reaching one that is less than k (this avoids reporting repeated values).
The construction of both, the suffix array and the LCP, can be done in linear time. So overall the solution is linear with respect to the size of the input plus output.
What you could do is use Chinese Remainder Theorem and pick several large prime moduli. If you recall, CRT means that a system of congruences with coprime moduli has a unique solution mod the product of all your moduli. So if you have three moduli 10^6+3, 10^6+33, and 10^6+37, then in effect you have a modulus of size 10^18 more or less. With a sufficiently large modulus, you can more or less disregard the idea of a collision happening at all---as my instructor so beautifully put it, it's more likely that your computer will spontaneously catch fire than a collision to happen, since you can drive that collision probability to be as arbitrarily small as you like.
There are a stream of integers coming through. The problem is to find the first pair of numbers from the stream that adds to a specific value (say, k).
With static arrays, one can use either of the below approaches:
Approach (1): Sort the array, use two pointers to beginning and end of array and compare.
Approach (2): Use hashing, i.e. if A[i]+A[j]=k, then A[j]=k-A[i]. Search for A[j] in the hash table.
But neither of these approaches scale well for streams. Any thoughts on efficiently solving this?
I believe that there is no way to do this that doesn't use at least O(n) memory, where n is the number of elements that appear before the first pair that sums to k. I'm assuming that we are using a RAM machine, but not a machine that permits awful bitwise hackery (in other words, we can't do anything fancy with bit packing.)
The proof sketch is as follows. Suppose that we don't store all of the n elements that appear before the first pair that sums to k. Then when we see the nth element, which sums with some previous value to get k, there is a chance that we will have discarded the previous element that it pairs with and thus won't know that the sum of k has been reached. More formally, suppose that an adversary could watch what values we were storing in memory as we looked at the first n - 1 elements and noted that we didn't store some element x. Then the adversary could set the next element of the stream to be k - x and we would incorrectly report that the sum had not yet been reached, since we wouldn't remember seeing x.
Given that we need to store all the elements we've seen, without knowing more about the numbers in the stream, a very good approach would be to use a hash table that contains all of the elements we've seen so far. Given a good hash table, this would take expected O(n) memory and O(n) time to complete.
I am not sure whether there is a more clever strategy for solving this problem if you make stronger assumptions about the sorts of numbers in the stream, but I am fairly confident that this is asymptotically ideal in terms of time and space.
Hope this helps!
The setup: I have two arrays which are not sorted and are not of the same length. I want to see if one of the arrays is a subset of the other. Each array is a set in the sense that there are no duplicates.
Right now I am doing this sequentially in a brute force manner so it isn't very fast. I am currently doing this subset method sequentially. I have been having trouble finding any algorithms online that A) go faster and B) are in parallel. Say the maximum size of either array is N, then right now it is scaling something like N^2. I was thinking maybe if I sorted them and did something clever I could bring it down to something like Nlog(N), but not sure.
The main thing is I have no idea how to parallelize this operation at all. I could just do something like each processor looks at an equal amount of the first array and compares those entries to all of the second array, but I'd still be doing N^2 work. But I guess it'd be better since it would run in parallel.
Any Ideas on how to improve the work and make it parallel at the same time?
Thanks
Suppose you are trying to decide if A is a subset of B, and let len(A) = m and len(B) = n.
If m is a lot smaller than n, then it makes sense to me that you sort A, and then iterate through B doing a binary search for each element on A to see if there is a match or not. You can partition B into k parts and have a separate thread iterate through every part doing the binary search.
To count the matches you can do 2 things. Either you could have a num_matched variable be incremented every time you find a match (You would need to guard this var using a mutex though, which might hinder your program's concurrency) and then check if num_matched == m at the end of the program. Or you could have another array or bit vector of size m, and have a thread update the k'th bit if it found a match for the k'th element of A. Then at the end, you make sure this array is all 1's. (On 2nd thoughts bit vector might not work out without a mutex because threads might overwrite each other's annotations when they load the integer containing the bit relevant to them). The array approach, atleast, would not need any mutex that can hinder concurrency.
Sorting would cost you mLog(m) and then, if you only had a single thread doing the matching, that would cost you nLog(m). So if n is a lot bigger than m, this would effectively be nLog(m). Your worst case still remains NLog(N), but I think concurrency would really help you a lot here to make this fast.
Summary: Just sort the smaller array.
Alternatively if you are willing to consider converting A into a HashSet (or any equivalent Set data structure that uses some sort of hashing + probing/chaining to give O(1) lookups), then you can do a single membership check in just O(1) (in amortized time), so then you can do this in O(n) + the cost of converting A into a Set.
In an array with integers between 1 and 1,000,000 or say some very larger value ,if a single value is occurring twice twice. How do you determine which one?
I think we can use a bitmap to mark the elements , and then traverse allover again to find out the repeated element . But , i think it is a process with high complexity.Is there any better way ?
This sounds like homework or an interview question ... so rather than giving away the answer, here's a hint.
What calculations can you do on a range of integers whose answer you can determine ahead of time?
Once you realize the answer to this, you should be able to figure it out .... if you still can't figure it out ... (and it's not homework) I'll post the solution :)
EDIT: Ok. So here's the elegant solution ... if the list contains ALL of the integers within the range.
We know that all of the values between 1 and N must exist in the list. Using Guass' formula we can quickly compute the expected value of a range of integers:
Sum(1..N) = 1/2 * (1 + N) * Count(1..N).
Since we know the expected sum, all we have to do is loop through all the values and sum their values. The different between this sum and the expected sum is the duplicate value.
EDIT: As other's have commented, the question doesn't state that the range contains all of the integers ... in this case, you have to decide whether you want to optimize for memory or time.
If you want to perform the operation using O(1) storage, you can perform an in-place sort of the list. As you're sorting you have to check adjacent elements. Once you see a duplicate, you know you can stop. Optimal sorting is an O(n log n) operation on average - which establishes an upper bound for find the duplicate in this manner.
If you want to optimize for speed, you can use an additional O(n) storage. Using a HashSet (or similar structure), insert values from your list until you determine you are inserting a duplicate into the HashSet. Inserting n items into a HashSet is an O(n) operation on average, which establishes that as an upper bound for this method.
you may try to use bits as hashmap:
1 at position k means that number k occured before
0 at position k means that number k did not occured before
pseudocode:
0. assume that your array is A
1. initialize bitarray(there is nice class in c# for this) of 1000000 length filled with zeros
2. for each num in A:
if bitarray[num]
return num
else
bitarray[num] = 1
end
The time complexity of the bitmap solution is O(n) and it doesn't seem like you could do better than that. However it will take up a lot of memory for a generic list of numbers. Sorting the numbers is an obvious way to detect duplicates and doesn't require extra space if you don't mind the current order changing.
Assuming the array is of length n < N (i.e. not ALL integers are present -- in this case LBushkin's trick is the answer to this homework problem), there is no way to solve this problem using less than O(n) memory using an algorithm that just takes a single pass through the array. This is by reduction to the set disjointness problem.
Suppose I made the problem easier, and I promised you that the duplicate elements were in the array such that the first one was in the first n/2 elements, and the second one was in the last n/2 elements. Now we can think of playing a game in which two people each hold a string of n/2 elements, and want to know how many messages they have to send to be sure that none of their elements are the same. Since the first player could simulate the run of any algorithm that takes a pass through the array, and send the contents of its memory to the second player, a lower bound on the number of messages they need to send implies a lower bound on the memory requirements of any algorithm.
But its easy to see in this simple game that they need to send n/2 messages to be sure that they don't hold any of the same elements, which yields the lower bound.
Edit: This generalizes to show that for algorithms that make k passes through the array and use memory m, that m*k = Omega(n). And it is easy to see that you can in fact trade off memory for time in this way.
Of course, if you are willing to use algorithms that don't simply take passes through the array, you can do better as suggested already: sort the array, then take 1 pass through. This takes time O(nlogn) and space O(1). But note curiously that this proves that any sorting algorithm that just makes passes through the array must take time Omega(n^2)! Sorting algorithms that break the n^2 bound must make random accesses.
If I have N arrays, what is the best(Time complexity. Space is not important) way to find the common elements. You could just find 1 element and stop.
Edit: The elements are all Numbers.
Edit: These are unsorted. Please do not sort and scan.
This is not a homework problem. Somebody asked me this question a long time ago. He was using a hash to solve the problem and asked me if I had a better way.
Create a hash index, with elements as keys, counts as values. Loop through all values and update the count in the index. Afterwards, run through the index and check which elements have count = N. Looking up an element in the index should be O(1), combined with looping through all M elements should be O(M).
If you want to keep order specific to a certain input array, loop over that array and test the element counts in the index in that order.
Some special cases:
if you know that the elements are (positive) integers with a maximum number that is not too high, you could just use a normal array as "hash" index to keep counts, where the number are just the array index.
I've assumed that in each array each number occurs only once. Adapting it for more occurrences should be easy (set the i-th bit in the count for the i-th array, or only update if the current element count == i-1).
EDIT when I answered the question, the question did not have the part of "a better way" than hashing in it.
The most direct method is to intersect the first 2 arrays and then intersecting this intersection with the remaining N-2 arrays.
If 'intersection' is not defined in the language in which you're working or you require a more specific answer (ie you need the answer to 'how do you do the intersection') then modify your question as such.
Without sorting there isn't an optimized way to do this based on the information given. (ie sorting and positioning all elements relatively to each other then iterating over the length of the arrays checking for defined elements in all the arrays at once)
The question asks is there a better way than hashing. There is no better way (i.e. better time complexity) than doing a hash as time to hash each element is typically constant. Empirical performance is also favorable particularly if the range of values is can be mapped one to one to an array maintaining counts. The time is then proportional to the number of elements across all the arrays. Sorting will not give better complexity, since this will still need to visit each element at least once, and then there is the log N for sorting each array.
Back to hashing, from a performance standpoint, you will get the best empirical performance by not processing each array fully, but processing only a block of elements from each array before proceeding onto the next array. This will take advantage of the CPU cache. It also results in fewer elements being hashed in favorable cases when common elements appear in the same regions of the array (e.g. common elements at the start of all arrays.) Worst case behaviour is no worse than hashing each array in full - merely that all elements are hashed.
I dont think approach suggested by catchmeifyoutry will work.
Let us say you have two arrays
1: {1,1,2,3,4,5}
2: {1,3,6,7}
then answer should be 1 and 3. But if we use hashtable approach, 1 will have count 3 and we will never find 1, int his situation.
Also problems becomes more complex if we have input something like this:
1: {1,1,1,2,3,4}
2: {1,1,5,6}
Here i think we should give output as 1,1. Suggested approach fails in both cases.
Solution :
read first array and put into hashtable. If we find same key again, dont increment counter. Read second array in same manner. Now in the hashtable we have common elelements which has count as 2.
But again this approach will fail in second input set which i gave earlier.
I'd first start with the degenerate case, finding common elements between 2 arrays (more on this later). From there I'll have a collection of common values which I will use as an array itself and compare it against the next array. This check would be performed N-1 times or until the "carry" array of common elements drops to size 0.
One could speed this up, I'd imagine, by divide-and-conquer, splitting the N arrays into the end nodes of a tree. The next level up the tree is N/2 common element arrays, and so forth and so on until you have an array at the top that is either filled or not. In either case, you'd have your answer.
Without sorting and scanning the best operational speed you'll get for comparing 2 arrays for common elements is O(N2).