Following is the data model of the dashboard I am facing problem in:
http://blob:http://stackoverflow.com/f3e40cfe-e009-4d03-bcf5-b7b4305c18c4
Now, what i want to achieve is that in Case there is a filed named Manufacturing_Date. And in MWODefetcs there is a field named Defect_Date. What i want is that when ever a record is selected from a table containing cases from Case corresponding records are shown in another table based on the exact match of Manufacturing_Date=Defect_Date.
As simple as it sounds, i can not seem to accomplish it. I have tried the following expressions to no avail:
Count({<[Defect_Date_text]=p([Manu_text]),FaultID=,DEFECT_CODE=>}MFG_BARCODE_NUM)
sum({$<Defect_Date ={"=$(Manufacturing_Date__c)"}>}Defect_Date)
Do the 2 tables need to be directly linked. Is it the intermediary iFaults table that is preventing me to accomplish it?
Please help.
you should use the P() set expression like this:
sum({$<Defect_Date =P(Manufacturing_Date__c) >}Defect_Date)
Related
I am trying to delete a set of data in the target table based on a column (year) from the lookup in IICS (Informatica Cloud).
I want to solve this problem using pre/post sql commands but the constraint is I can't pass year column to my query.
I tried this:
delete from sample_db.tbl_emp where emp_year = {year}
I want to delete all the employees in a specific year i get from lookup return
For Ex:
I got year as '2019', all the records in table sample_db.tbl_emp containing emp_year=2019 must be deleted.
I am not sure how this works in informatica cloud.
Any leads would be helpful.
How are you getting the year value? A pre/post SQL may not be the way to go unless you need to do this as part of another transformation, i.e., before or after the transformation runs. Also, does your org only have ICDI, or also ICAI? ICAI may be a better solution depending on the value is being provided.
The following steps would help you achieve this.
Create an input-output parameter in your mapping.
Assign the result of your lookup in an expression transformation to the parameter using SetMaxVariable
Use the parameter in your target pre SQL as
delete from sample_db.tbl_emp where emp_year = $$parameter
Let me know if you have any further questions
I will be dynamically combining a range of tables with the exact same structure in RethinkDB.
I have my dynamically-generated list of tables in an array as follows:
tables = [r.table('table1'), r.table('table2'), ...]
And I am trying to do this:
r.union(r.args(tables))
But that just gives me an error: ReqlLogicError: Expected type DATUM but found TABLE
Overall, I have not been able to find a way to generate a list of tables in JavaScript and to add use r.union to combine them into a stream. Would appreciate help on this.
Thanks!
You can use reduce to do what you want, we merge one by one, like r.table(t1).union(r.table(t2)).union(r.table(t3)).
Like this:
[r.table('t1'), r.table('t2'), r.table('t3')].reduce(function(p, c) {
return p.union(c)
})
Try it from data explorer.
The answer provided by kureikain works. I still wish the functionality existed in RethinkDB with r.args() (it seems to me that this would be consistent with the documentation of that function).
Moreover, one important tip tangentially related to this question: if you want to combine multiple tables into a stream through r.union() but be able to tell which table it is in the results, use merge(). So my query would look something like this:
[r.db('database').table('table1').merge({source: 'table1'}), r.db('database').table('table2').merge({source: 'table2'})].reduce(function(p, c) { return p.union(c) }).filter( ...)
This allows you to not only combine multiple tables into one stream, but to always distinguish between the source tables in your results (by looking up the value of the key 'source').
I have a use case where i am mapping two tables to the same object.
In this object i have a string called source and I want to be able to set the table name or the database name to this variable.
Any ideas on how to achieve this?
I have thought about iterating over my list and manually setting it but this has the potential to waste a fair chunk of time.
I appreciate this is somewhat of an odd request so this may be the only way but am hoping for a solution that maps the source variable when hibernate is mapping everything else.
if i had understood correctly your issue , then your solution might be the MappedSuperClass , in which you must have an abstract class , which will have the common fields of the two tables and then you will extend that to the two entities you want , which will point to two different tables.
Check this link
You could try to achieve this with Load listener or Interceptors. In the listener/interceptor you can check what the data source is and populate the source field accordingly.
In the end i ended up using a formula to map my variable to a select statement which was sufficient for what i needed.
I'm trying to build a report in AX 2009 (SP1, currently rollup 6) with a primary data source of the SalesQuotationLine table. Due to how our inventory is structured, I need to apply a filter that shows only certain categories of items (in this case, non-service items as defined in the InventTable). However, it seems that there is a problem in the link between the SalesQuotationLine and InventTable such that only two specific items will ever display.
We have tested this against the Sales Quotation Details screen as well, with the same results. Executing a query such as this:
...will only show quotes that have one of the specific items mentioned earlier. If we change the Item Type to something else (for example to Item), the result is an empty set. We are also getting this issue on one of our secondary test servers, which for all intents is a fresh install.
There doesn't seem to be any issues with the data mapping from the one table to the other, and we are not experiencing this issue with any other table set. Is this a real issue, or am I just missing something?
After analyzing the results from a SQL Profile run during the execution of the query, it seems the issue was a system bug. When selecting a table to join to the SalesQuotationLines, you have two options: 'Items' and 'Items (Item Number)'. Regardless of which table you select the query executes with, it joins the InventTable with the relation "SalesQuotationLines.ProjTransCode = InventTable.ItemId".
After comparing the table to other layers in the system, I found the following block of code removed from the createLine method (in the SYP layer):
if (this.ProjTransType == QuotationProjTransType::Item)
{
this.ProjTransCode = this.ItemId;
}
Since the ProjTransCode is no longer being populated, the join does not work except on certain quote lines that do have the ProjTransCode populated.
In addition, there is no directly defined relation to the InventTable - the link is only maintained via an Extended Data Type that is used on the SalesQuotationLine.ItemId field. Adding this relation in manually solved the problem.
Say i have something like this:
somerecord SOMETABLE%ROWTYPE;
Is it possible to access the fields of somerecord with out knowing the fields names?
Something like somerecord[i] such that the order of fields would be the same as the column order in the table?
I have seen a few examples using dynamic sql but i was wondering if there is a cleaner way of doing this.
What i am trying to do is generate/get the DML (insert query) for a specific row in my table but i havent been able to find anything on this.
If there is another way of doing this i'd be happy to use but would also be very curious in knowing how to do the former part of this question - it's more versatile.
Thanks
This doesn't exactly answer the question you asked, but might get you the result you want...
You can query the USER_TAB_COLUMNS view (or the other similar *_TAB_COLUMN views) to get information like the column name (COLUMN_NAME), position (COLUMN_ID), and data type (DATA_TYPE) on the columns in a table (or a view) that you might use to generate DML.
You would still need to use dynamic SQL to execute the generated DML (or at least generate static SQL separately).
However, this approach won't work for identifying the columns in an arbitrary query (unless you create a view of it). If you need that, you might need to resort to DBMS_SQL (or other tools).
Hope this helps.
As far as I know there is no clean way of referencing record fields by their index.
However, if you have a lot of different kinds of updates of the same table each with its own column set to update, you might want to avoid dynamic sql and look in the direction of statically populating your record with values, and then issuing update someTable set row = someTableRecord where someTable.id = someTableRecord.id;.
This approach has it's own drawbacks, like, issuing an update to every, even unchanged column, and thus creating additional redo log data, but I believe it should be considered.