Generating permutations for all possible lengths [duplicate] - algorithm

I'd like to know a possible algorithm to calculate all possible combinations, without repetitions, starting from length=1 until length=N of N elements.
Example:
Elements: 1, 2, 3.
Output:
1
2
3
12
13
23
123

Look at the binary presentation of the numbers 0 to 2^n - 1.
n = 3
i Binary Combination
CBA
0 000
1 001 A
2 010 B
3 011 A B
4 100 C
5 101 A C
6 110 B C
7 111 A B C
So you just have to enumerate the numbers 1 to 2^n - 1 and look at the binary representation to know which elements to include. If you want to have them ordered by the number of elements post sort them or generate the numbers in order (there are several example on SO).

Related

Converting to and from a number system that doesn't have a zero digit

Consider Microsoft Excel's column-numbering system. Columns are "numbered" A, B, C, ... , Y, Z, AA, AB, AC, ... where A is 1.
The column system is similar to the base-10 numbering system that we're familiar with in that when any digit has its maximum value and is incremented, its value is set to the lowest possible digit value and the digit to its left is incremented, or a new digit is added at the minimum value. The difference is that there isn't a digit that represents zero in the letter numbering system. So if the "digit alphabet" contained ABC or 123, we could count like this:
(base 3 with zeros added for comparison)
base 3 no 0 base 3 with 0 base 10 with 0
----------- ------------- --------------
- - 0 0
A 1 1 1
B 2 2 2
C 3 10 3
AA 11 11 4
AB 12 12 5
AC 13 20 6
BA 21 21 7
BB 22 22 8
BC 23 100 9
CA 31 101 10
CB 32 102 11
CC 33 110 12
AAA 111 111 13
Converting from the zeroless system to our base 10 system is fairly simple; it's still a matter of multiplying the power of that space by the value in that space and adding it to the total. So in the case of AAA with the alphabet ABC, it's equivalent to (1*3^2) + (1*3^1) + (1*3^0) = 9 + 3 + 1 = 13.
I'm having trouble converting inversely, though. With a zero-based system, you can use a greedy algorithm moving from largest to smallest digit and grabbing whatever fits. This will not work for a zeroless system, however. For example, converting the base-10 number 10 to the base-3 zeroless system: Though 9 (the third digit slot: 3^2) would fit into 10, this would leave no possible configuration of the final two digits since their minimum values are 1*3^1 = 3 and 1*3^0 = 1 respectively.
Realistically, my digit alphabet will contain A-Z, so I'm looking for a quick, generalized conversion method that can do this without trial and error or counting up from zero.
Edit
The accepted answer by n.m. is primarily a string-manipulation-based solution.
For a purely mathematical solution see kennytm's links:
What is the algorithm to convert an Excel Column Letter into its Number?
How to convert a column number (eg. 127) into an excel column (eg. AA)
Convert to base-3-with-zeroes first (digits 0AB), and from there, convert to base-3-without-zeroes (ABC), using these string substitutions:
A0 => 0C
B0 => AC
C0 => BC
Each substitution either removes a zero, or pushes one to the left. In the end, discard leading zeroes.
It is also possible, as an optimisation, to process longer strings of zeros at once:
A000...000 = 0BBB...BBC
B000...000 = ABBB...BBC
C000...000 = BBBB...BBC
Generalizable to any base.

Mapping from "int" to corresponding permutation value?

I ran across this question this morning.
Basically that question is about data which has to create permutations for 6 values; each one ranging from 1 to 38.
So, first permutation would be
1 1 1 1 1 1 [ permutation 1 ]
1 1 1 1 1 2 [ permutation 2 ]
1 1 1 1 1 3... [ permutation 3 ]
to end much later with
38 38 38 38 38 38 [ permutation 38^^6 ]
The output is simply created by 6 nested loops, each counting from 1 to 38; and within the inner-most loop, you print the 6 loop counters.
Now I am wondering about the math behind that; and out of curiosity: what would be the "function" that
computes the "permutation index", given a any permutation 1 2 3 4 5 6
Probably more interesting: that takes an "index", such as 102382; and tells me the corresponding permutation output
Any idea anybody?
It works exactly like a change of base (binar, octal or hex).
The first one question simply:
1*38^6 + 2*38^5 + 3*38^4 + 4*38^3 +...+6*38^0
The second one reversed:
102382 mod 38... recursively
UPDATE
Let us assume we want change 10 to base 2:
10/2=5 remainder(modulus) **0**
5/2=2 remainder **1**
2/2=1 remainder **0**
1/2=0 remainder **1**
backwards is 1010
general gave a M to change in base B, just divide M by B , and the remainder are going to be the digit in the new base

AND of all natural numbers lying between A and B both inclusive

We are required to compute the bit wise AND amongst all natural numbers lying between A and B, both inclusive.I came across this problem on a website and here is the approach they used but i couldn't understand the method.Can anyone explain this more clearly with an example ?
In order to solve this problem, we just need to focus on the occurrences of each power 2, which turn out to be cyclic. Now for each 2^i(the length of the cycle will be 2^(i+1) having 2^i zeros followed by same number of ones) we just need to compute if 1 remains constant in the given interval, which is done by simple arithmetic. If so, that power of 2 will be present in the answer, otherwise it won't.
Let's count (unsigned) with 3 bits to visualize some numbers first:
000 = 0
001 = 1
010 = 2
011 = 3
100 = 4
101 = 5
110 = 6
111 = 7
If you look at the columns, you can see that the lowest bit is alternating with a cycle of 1, the next with a cycle of 2, then 4, and the nth lowest bit is alternating with a cycle of 2^(n-1).
As soon as a bit was 0 once it is always 0 (because 0 and whatever is 0).
You could also say the nth bit is only 1 if the nth bit of A and B is 1 and d < 2^(n-1). In other words a bit will only be 1 if it is 1 at the beginning and the end and didn't had time to change to 0 in between because its cycle is too large.

Looking for a generic, fast, low-memory algorithm to output N-out-of-M combinations of an array without repetitions

I have an array with players
$players = array('A','B','C','D','E','F');
and i want to get every possible 3 way finishing.
1st 2nd 3rd
A B C
A B D
...
C A B
C B A
...
F D E
F E D
I have some permutation algorithm but it must be something else since in permutation there is 6 * 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1 combination and here is only 6 * 5 * 4
Here's some pseudo-code to print your 3 out of 6 combinations without repetition:
for i = 1 to 6
for j = 1 to 6
if (j != i)
for k = 1 to 6
if (k != i && k != j)
print(A[i], A[j], A[k])
end if
next k
end if
next j
next i
For the general k-of-n case see: Algorithm to return all combinations of k elements from n
Given your permutation algorithm, you can use it in two steps to get the desired permutations.
First, let's consider the following mapping. Given input as A1 A2 A3 A4 A5 ... An, a value b1 b2 b3 b4 b5 ... bn means select Ai if bi is 1 and not if it is 0.
With your input, for example:
0 0 1 1 0 1 -> C D F
0 1 0 0 1 1 -> B E F
Now your algorithm can go as follows:
Take n as the number of elements (in your case 6) and m as the number you want to choose from.
Construct the following sequence:
0 0 0 ... 0 1 1 1 ... 1
\____ ____/ \____ ____/
V V
n - m m
Get all permutations of the above sequence and for each:
Find the m elements that are marked in the sequence
Get all permutations of those m elements and for each:
do whatever you want!
Your problem is not finding all permutations of 6 elements.
Your problem is to choose 3 elements, and than check its permutations.
The number of combinations = C(6,3)*3! = 6! / 3! = 6*5*4.
C(6,3) - for choosing 3 elements out of 6. (No matter the order)
3! - for ordering the 3 chosen elements.
This is the exactly number of combinations you should get. (and you do)
However, you can use your permutation algorithm to get all permutations of the 6 elements.
Than, just ignore the last 3 elements, and remove duplicates from the result.
I may be wrong but I think you have the correct amount of possible permutations here. You choose only 3 players among the 6 players array. So for the first player, you have 6 possibilities, for the second player you have 5 possibilities, and for the third player, you have 4 possibilities.
If you decide to have 4 players at the end instead of having 3, the possible amount of permutations would be 6*5*4*3, and so on.
I hope my math is not too old!

What are some good ways to calculate a score for how difference or close 2 users choices are?

For example, if it is the choice of chocolate, ice cream, donut, ..., for the order of their preference.
If user 1 choose
A B C D E F G H I J
and user 2 chooses
J A B C I G F E D H
what are some good ways to calculate a score from 0 to 100 to tell how close their choices are? It has to make sense, such as if most answers are the same but just 1 or 2 answers different, the score cannot be made to extremely low. Or, if most answers are just "shifted by 1 position", then we cannot count them as "all different" and give 0 score for those differences of only 1 position.
Assign each letter item an integer value starting at 1
A=1, B=2, C=3, D=4, E=5, F=6 (stopping at F for simplicity)
Then consider the order the items are placed, use this as a multiple
So if a number is the first item, its multiplier is 1, if its the 6th item the multipler is 6
Figure out the maximum score you could have (basically when everything is in consecutive order)
item a b c d e f
order 1 2 3 4 5 6
value 1 2 3 4 5 6
score 1 4 9 16 25 36 Sum = 91, Score = 100% (MAX)
item a b d c e f
order 1 2 3 4 5 6
value 1 2 4 3 5 6
score 1 4 12 12 25 36 Sum = 90 Score = 99%
=======================
order 1 2 3 4 5 6
item f d b c e a
value 6 4 2 3 5 1
score 6 8 6 12 25 6 Sum = 63 Score = 69%
order 1 2 3 4 5 6
item d f b c e a
value 4 6 2 3 5 1
score 4 12 6 12 25 6 Sum = 65 Score = 71%
obviously this is a very crude implementation that I just came up with. It may not work for everything. Examples 3 and 4 are swapped by one position yet the score is off by 2% (versus ex 1 and 2 which are off by 1%). It's just a thought. I'm no algorithm expert. You could probably use the final number and do something else to it for a better numerical comparison.
You could
Calculate the edit distance between the sequences;
Subtract the edit distance from the sequence length;
Divide that by the length of the sequence
Multiply it by hundred
Score = 100 * (SequenceLength - Levenshtein( Sequence1, Sequence2 ) ) / SequenceLength
Edit distance is basically the number of operations required to transform sequence one in sequence two. An algorithm therefore is the Levenshtein distance algorithm.
Examples:
Weights
insert: 1
delete: 1
substitute: 1
Seq 1: ABCDEFGHIJ
Seq 2: JABCIGFEDH
Score = 100 * (10-7) / 10 = 30
Seq 1: ABCDEFGHIJ
Seq 2: ABDCFGHIEJ
Score = 100 * (10-3) / 10 = 70
The most straightforward way to calculate it is the Levenshtein distance, which is the number of changes that must be done to transform one string to another.
Disadvantage of Levenshtein distance for your task is that it doesn't measure closeness between products themselves. I.e. you will not know how A and J are close to each other. For example, user 1 may like donuts, and user 2 may like buns, and you know that most people who like first also like the second. From this information you can infer that user 1 makes choices that are close to choices of user 2, through they don't have same elements.
If this is your case, you will have to use one of two: statistical methods to infer correlation between choices or recommendation engines.

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