I have a number n and a set of numbers S ∈ [1..n]* with size s (which is substantially smaller than n). I want to sample a number k ∈ [1..n] with equal probability, but the number is not allowed to be in the set S.
I am trying to solve the problem in at worst O(log n + s). I am not sure whether it's possible.
A naive approach is creating an array of numbers from 1 to n excluding all numbers in S and then pick one array element. This will run in O(n) and is not an option.
Another approach may be just generating random numbers ∈[1..n] and rejecting them if they are contained in S. This has no theoretical bound as any number could be sampled multiple times even if it is in the set. But on average this might be a practical solution if s is substantially smaller than n.
Say s is sorted. Generate a random number between 1 and n-s, call it k. We've chosen the k'th element of {1,...,n} - s. Now we need to find it.
Use binary search on s to find the count of the elements of s <= k. This takes O(log |s|). Add this to k. In doing so, we may have passed or arrived at additional elements of s. We can adjust for this by incrementing our answer for each such element that we pass, which we find by checking the next larger element of s from the point we found in our binary search.
E.g., n = 100, s = {1,4,5,22}, and our random number is 3. So our approach should return the third element of [2,3,6,7,...,21,23,24,...,100] which is 6. Binary search finds that 1 element is at most 3, so we increment to 4. Now we compare to the next larger element of s which is 4 so increment to 5. Repeating this finds 5 in so we increment to 6. We check s once more, see that 6 isn't in it, so we stop.
E.g., n = 100, s = {1,4,5,22}, and our random number is 4. So our approach should return the fourth element of [2,3,6,7,...,21,23,24,...,100] which is 7. Binary search finds that 2 elements are at most 4, so we increment to 6. Now we compare to the next larger element of s which is 5 so increment to 7. We check s once more, see that the next number is > 7, so we stop.
If we assume that "s is substantially smaller than n" means |s| <= log(n), then we will increment at most log(n) times, and in any case at most s times.
If s is not sorted then we can do the following. Create an array of bits of size s. Generate k. Parse s and do two things: 1) count the number of elements < k, call this r. At the same time, set the i'th bit to 1 if k+i is in s (0 indexed so if k is in s then the first bit is set).
Now, increment k a number of times equal to r plus the number of set bits is the array with an index <= the number of times incremented.
E.g., n = 100, s = {1,4,5,22}, and our random number is 4. So our approach should return the fourth element of [2,3,6,7,...,21,23,24,...,100] which is 7. We parse s and 1) note that 1 element is below 4 (r=1), and 2) set our array to [1, 1, 0, 0]. We increment once for r=1 and an additional two times for the two set bits, ending up at 7.
This is O(s) time, O(s) space.
This is an O(1) solution with O(s) initial setup that works by mapping each non-allowed number > s to an allowed number <= s.
Let S be the set of non-allowed values, S(i), where i = [1 .. s] and s = |S|.
Here's a two part algorithm. The first part constructs a hash table based only on S in O(s) time, the second part finds the random value k ∈ {1..n}, k ∉ S in O(1) time, assuming we can generate a uniform random number in a contiguous range in constant time. The hash table can be reused for new random values and also for new n (assuming S ⊂ { 1 .. n } still holds of course).
To construct the hash, H. First set j = 1. Then iterate over S(i), the elements of S. They do not need to be sorted. If S(i) > s, add the key-value pair (S(i), j) to the hash table, unless j ∈ S, in which case increment j until it is not. Finally, increment j.
To find a random value k, first generate a uniform random value in the range s + 1 to n, inclusive. If k is a key in H, then k = H(k). I.e., we do at most one hash lookup to insure k is not in S.
Python code to generate the hash:
def substitute(S):
H = dict()
j = 1
for s in S:
if s > len(S):
while j in S: j += 1
H[s] = j
j += 1
return H
For the actual implementation to be O(s), one might need to convert S into something like a frozenset to insure the test for membership is O(1) and also move the len(S) loop invariant out of the loop. Assuming the j in S test and the insertion into the hash (H[s] = j) are constant time, this should have complexity O(s).
The generation of a random value is simply:
def myrand(n, s, H):
k = random.randint(s + 1, n)
return (H[k] if k in H else k)
If one is only interested in a single random value per S, then the algorithm can be optimized to improve the common case, while the worst case remains the same. This still requires S be in a hash table that allows for a constant time "element of" test.
def rand_not_in(n, S):
k = random.randint(len(S) + 1, n);
if k not in S: return k
j = 1
for s in S:
if s > len(S):
while j in S: j += 1
if s == k: return j
j += 1
Optimizations are: Only generate the mapping if the random value is in S. Don't save the mapping to a hash table. Short-circuit the mapping generation when the random value is found.
Actually, the rejection method seems like the practical approach.
Generate a number in 1...n and check whether it is forbidden; regenerate until the generated number is not forbidden.
The probability of a single rejection is p = s/n.
Thus the expected number of random number generations is 1 + p + p^2 + p^3 + ... which is 1/(1-p), which in turn is equal to n/(n-s).
Now, if s is much less than n, or even more up to s = n/2, this expected number is at most 2.
It would take s almost equal to n to make it infeasible in practice.
Multiply the expected time by log s if you use a tree-set to check whether the number is in the set, or by just 1 (expected value again) if it is a hash-set. So the average time is O(1) or O(log s) depending on the set implementation. There is also O(s) memory for storing the set, but unless the set is given in some special way, implicitly and concisely, I don't see how it can be avoided.
(Edit: As per comments, you do this only once for a given set.
If, additionally, we are out of luck, and the set is given as a plain array or list, not some fancier data structure, we get O(s) expected time with this approach, which still fits into the O(log n + s) requirement.)
If attacks against the unbounded algorithm are a concern (and only if they truly are), the method can include a fall-back algorithm for the cases when a certain fixed number of iterations didn't provide the answer.
Similarly to how IntroSort is QuickSort but falls back to HeapSort if the recursion depth gets too high (which is almost certainly a result of an attack resulting in quadratic QuickSort behavior).
Find all numbers that are in a forbidden set and less or equal then n-s. Call it array A.
Find all numbers that are not in a forbidden set and greater then n-s. Call it array B. It may be done in O(s) if set is sorted.
Note that lengths of A and B are equal, and create mapping map[A[i]] = B[i]
Generate number t up to n-s. If there is map[t] return it, otherwise return t
It will work in O(s) insertions to a map + 1 lookup which is either O(s) in average or O(s log s)
Related
Given the following pseudo-code, the question is how many times on average is the variable m being updated.
A[1...n]: array with n random elements
m = a[1]
for I = 2 to n do
if a[I] < m then m = a[I]
end for
One might answer that since all elements are random, then the variable will be updated on average on half the number of iterations of the for loop plus one for the initialization.
However, I suspect that there must be a better (and possibly the only correct) way to prove it using binomial distribution with p = 1/2. This way, the average number of updates on m would be
M = 1 + Σi=1 to n-1[k.Cn,k.pk.(1-p)(n-k)]
where Cn,k is the binomial coefficient. I have tried to solve this but I have stuck some steps after since I do not know how to continue.
Could someone explain me which of the two answers is correct and if it is the second one, show me how to calculate M?
Thank you for your time
Assuming the elements of the array are distinct, the expected number of updates of m is the nth harmonic number, Hn, which is the sum of 1/k for k ranging from 1 to n.
The summation formula can also be represented by the recursion:
H1 = 1
Hn = Hn−1+1/n (n > 1)
It's easy to see that the recursion corresponds to the problem.
Consider all permutations of n−1 numbers, and assume that the expected number of assignments is Hn−1. Now, every permutation of n numbers consists of a permutation of n−1 numbers, with a new smallest number inserted in one of n possible insertion points: either at the beginning, or after one of the n−1 existing values. Since it is smaller than every number in the existing series, it will only be assigned to m in the case that it was inserted at the beginning. That has a probability of 1/n, and so the expected number of assignments of a permutation of n numbers is Hn−1 + 1/n.
Since the expected number of assignments for a vector of length one is obviously 1, which is H1, we have an inductive proof of the recursion.
Hn is asymptotically equal to ln n + γ where γ is the Euler-Mascheroni constant, approximately 0.577. So it increases without limit, but quite slowly.
The values for which m is updated are called left-to-right maxima, and you'll probably find more information about them by searching for that term.
I liked #rici answer so I decided to elaborate its central argument a little bit more so to make it clearer to me.
Let H[k] be the expected number of assignments needed to compute the min m of an array of length k, as indicated in the algorithm under consideration. We know that
H[1] = 1.
Now assume we have an array of length n > 1. The min can be in the last position of the array or not. It is in the last position with probability 1/n. It is not with probability 1 - 1/n. In the first case the expected number of assignments is H[n-1] + 1. In the second, H[n-1].
If we multiply the expected number of assignments of each case by their probabilities and sum, we get
H[n] = (H[n-1] + 1)*1/n + H[n-1]*(1 - 1/n)
= H[n-1]*1/n + 1/n + H[n-1] - H[n-1]*1/n
= 1/n + H[n-1]
which shows the recursion.
Note that the argument is valid if the min is either in the last position or in any the first n-1, not in both places. Thus we are using that all the elements of the array are different.
My goal is to sample k integers from 0, ... n-1 without duplication. The order of sampled integers doesn't matter. At every each call (which occurs very often), n and k will slightly vary but not much (n is about 250,000 and k is about 2,000). I've come up with the following amortized O(k) algorithm:
Prepare an array A with items 0, 1, 2, ... , n-1. This takes O(n) but since n is relatively stable, the cost can be made amortized constant.
Sample a random number r from [0:i] where i = n - 1. Here the cost is in fact related to n, but as n is not VERY BIG, this dependency is not critical.
Swap the rth item and the ith item in the array A.
Decrease i by 1.
Repeat k times the steps 2~4; now we have a random permutation of length k at the tail of A. Copy this.
We should roll back A to its initial state (0, ... , n-1) to keep the cost of the step 1 constant. This can be done by push r to a stack of length k at each pass of step 2. Preparation of the stack requires amortized constant cost.
I think uniform sampling of permutation/combination should be an exhaustively studied problem, so either (1) there is a much better solution, or at least (2) my solution is a (minor modification of) a well-known solution. Thus,
In case (1), I want to know that better solution.
In case (2), I want to find a reference.
Please help me. Thanks.
If k is much less than n -- say, less than half of n -- then the most efficient solution is to keep the numbers generated in a hash table (actually, a hash set, since there is no value associated with a key). If the random number happens to already be in the hash table, reject it and generate another one in its place. With the actual values of k and n suggested (k ∼ 2000; n ∼ 250,000) the expected number of rejections to generate k unique samples is less than 10, so it will hardly be noticeable. The size of the hash table is O(k), and it can simply be deleted at the end of the sample generation.
It is also possible to simulate the FYK shuffle algorithm using a hash table instead of a vector of n values, thereby avoiding having to reject generated random numbers. If you were using a vector A, you would start by initializing A[i] to i, for every 0 ≤ i < k. With the hash table H, you start with an empty hash table, and use the convention that H[i] is considered to be i if the key i is not in the hash table. Step 3 in your algorithm -- "swap A[r] with A[i]" -- becomes "add H[r] as the next element of the sample and set H[r] to H[i]". Note that it is unnecessary to set H[i] because that element will never be referred to again: all subsequent random numbers r are generate from a range which does not include i.
Because the hash table in this case contains both keys and values, it is larger than the hash set used in alternative 1, above, and the increased size (and consequent increase in memory cache misses) is likely to cause more overhead than is saved by eliminating rejections. However, it has the advantage of working even if k is occasionally close to n.
Finally, in your proposed algorithm, it is actually quite easy to restore A in O(k) time. A value A[j] will have been modified by the algorithm only if:
a. n − k ≤ j < n, or
b. there is some i such that n − k ≤ i < n and A[i] = j.
Consequently, you can restore the vector A by looking at each A[i] for n − k ≤ i < n: first, if A[i] < n−k, set A[A[i]] to A[i]; then, unconditionally set A[i] to i.
You are given N and an int K[].
The task at hand is to generate a equal probabilistic random number between 0 to N-1 which doesn't exist in K.
N is strictly a integer >= 0.
And K.length is < N-1. And 0 <= K[i] <= N-1. Also assume K is sorted and each element of K is unique.
You are given a function uniformRand(int M) which generates uniform random number in the range 0 to M-1 And assume this functions's complexity is O(1).
Example:
N = 7
K = {0, 1, 5}
the function should return any random number { 2, 3, 4, 6 } with equal
probability.
I could get a O(N) solution for this : First generate a random number between 0 to N - K.length. And map the thus generated random number to a number not in K. The second step will take the complexity to O(N). Can it be done better in may be O(log N) ?
You can use the fact that all the numbers in K[] are between 0 and N-1 and they are distinct.
For your example case, you generate a random number from 0 to 3. Say you get a random number r. Now you conduct binary search on the array K[].
Initialize i = K.length/2.
Find K[i] - i. This will give you the number of numbers missing from the array in the range 0 to i.
For example K[2] = 5. So 3 elements are missing from K[0] to K[2] (2,3,4)
Hence you can decide whether you have to conduct the remaining search in the first part of array K or the next part. This is because you know r.
This search will give you a complexity of log(K.length)
EDIT: For example,
N = 7
K = {0, 1, 4} // modified the array to clarify the algorithm steps.
the function should return any random number { 2, 3, 5, 6 } with equal probability.
Random number generated between 0 and N-K.length = random{0-3}. Say we get 3. Hence we require the 4th missing number in array K.
Conduct binary search on array K[].
Initial i = K.length/2 = 1.
Now we see K[1] - 1 = 0. Hence no number is missing upto i = 1. Hence we search on the latter part of the array.
Now i = 2. K[2] - 2 = 4 - 2 = 2. Hence there are 2 missing numbers up to index i = 2. But we need the 4th missing element. So we again have to search in the latter part of the array.
Now we reach an empty array. What should we do now? If we reach an empty array between say K[j] & K[j+1] then it simply means that all elements between K[j] and K[j+1] are missing from the array K.
Hence all elements above K[2] are missing from the array, namely 5 and 6. We need the 4th element out of which we have already discarded 2 elements. Hence we will choose the second element which is 6.
Binary search.
The basic algorithm:
(not quite the same as the other answer - the number is only generated at the end)
Start in the middle of K.
By looking at the current value and it's index, we can determine the number of pickable numbers (numbers not in K) to the left.
Similarly, by including N, we can determine the number of pickable numbers to the right.
Now randomly go either left or right, weighted based on the count of pickable numbers on each side.
Repeat in the chosen subarray until the subarray is empty.
Then generate a random number in the range consisting of the numbers before and after the subarray in the array.
The running time would be O(log |K|), and, since |K| < N-1, O(log N).
The exact mathematics for number counts and weights can be derived from the example below.
Extension with K containing a bigger range:
Now let's say (for enrichment purposes) K can also contain values N or larger.
Then, instead of starting with the entire K, we start with a subarray up to position min(N, |K|), and start in the middle of that.
It's easy to see that the N-th position in K (if one exists) will be >= N, so this chosen range includes any possible number we can generate.
From here, we need to do a binary search for N (which would give us a point where all values to the left are < N, even if N could not be found) (the above algorithm doesn't deal with K containing values greater than N).
Then we just run the algorithm as above with the subarray ending at the last value < N.
The running time would be O(log N), or, more specifically, O(log min(N, |K|)).
Example:
N = 10
K = {0, 1, 4, 5, 8}
So we start in the middle - 4.
Given that we're at index 2, we know there are 2 elements to the left, and the value is 4, so there are 4 - 2 = 2 pickable values to the left.
Similarly, there are 10 - (4+1) - 2 = 3 pickable values to the right.
So now we go left with probability 2/(2+3) and right with probability 3/(2+3).
Let's say we went right, and our next middle value is 5.
We are at the first position in this subarray, and the previous value is 4, so we have 5 - (4+1) = 0 pickable values to the left.
And there are 10 - (5+1) - 1 = 3 pickable values to the right.
We can't go left (0 probability). If we go right, our next middle value would be 8.
There would be 2 pickable values to the left, and 1 to the right.
If we go left, we'd have an empty subarray.
So then we'd generate a number between 5 and 8, which would be 6 or 7 with equal probability.
This can be solved by basically solving this:
Find the rth smallest number not in the given array, K, subject to
conditions in the question.
For that consider the implicit array D, defined by
D[i] = K[i] - i for 0 <= i < L, where L is length of K
We also set D[-1] = 0 and D[L] = N
We also define K[-1] = 0.
Note, we don't actually need to construct D. Also note that D is sorted (and all elements non-negative), as the numbers in K[] are unique and increasing.
Now we make the following claim:
CLAIM: To find the rth smallest number not in K[], we need to find right most occurrence of r' in D (which occurs at position defined by j), where r' is the largest number in D, which is < r. Such an r' exists, because D[-1] = 0. Once we find such an r' (and j), the number we are looking for is r-r' + K[j].
Proof: Basically the definition of r' and j tells us that there are exactlyr' numbers missing from 0 to K[j], and more than r numbers missing from 0 to K[j+1]. Thus all the numbers from K[j]+1 to K[j+1]-1 are missing (and these missing are at least r-r' in number), and the number we seek is among them, given by K[j] + r-r'.
Algorithm:
In order to find (r',j) all we need to do is a (modified) binary search for r in D, where we keep moving to the left even if we find r in the array.
This is an O(log K) algorithm.
If you are running this many times, it probably pays to speed up your generation operation: O(log N) time just isn't acceptable.
Make an empty array G. Starting at zero, count upwards while progressing through the values of K. If a value isn't in K add it to G. If it is in K don't add it and progress your K pointer. (This relies on K being sorted.)
Now you have an array G which has only acceptable numbers.
Use your random number generator to choose a value from G.
This requires O(N) preparatory work and each generation happens in O(1) time. After N look-ups the amortized time of all operations is O(1).
A Python mock-up:
import random
class PRNG:
def __init__(self, K,N):
self.G = []
kptr = 0
for i in range(N):
if kptr<len(K) and K[kptr]==i:
kptr+=1
else:
self.G.append(i)
def getRand(self):
rn = random.randint(0,len(self.G)-1)
return self.G[rn]
prng=PRNG( [0,1,5], 7)
for i in range(20):
print prng.getRand()
Given two sorted arrays of numbers, we want to find the pair with the kth largest possible sum. (A pair is one element from the first array and one element from the second array). For example, with arrays
[2, 3, 5, 8, 13]
[4, 8, 12, 16]
The pairs with largest sums are
13 + 16 = 29
13 + 12 = 25
8 + 16 = 24
13 + 8 = 21
8 + 12 = 20
So the pair with the 4th largest sum is (13, 8). How to find the pair with the kth largest possible sum?
Also, what is the fastest algorithm? The arrays are already sorted and sizes M and N.
I am already aware of the O(Klogk) solution , using Max-Heap given here .
It also is one of the favorite Google interview question , and they demand a O(k) solution .
I've also read somewhere that there exists a O(k) solution, which i am unable to figure out .
Can someone explain the correct solution with a pseudocode .
P.S.
Please DON'T post this link as answer/comment.It DOESN'T contain the answer.
I start with a simple but not quite linear-time algorithm. We choose some value between array1[0]+array2[0] and array1[N-1]+array2[N-1]. Then we determine how many pair sums are greater than this value and how many of them are less. This may be done by iterating the arrays with two pointers: pointer to the first array incremented when sum is too large and pointer to the second array decremented when sum is too small. Repeating this procedure for different values and using binary search (or one-sided binary search) we could find Kth largest sum in O(N log R) time, where N is size of the largest array and R is number of possible values between array1[N-1]+array2[N-1] and array1[0]+array2[0]. This algorithm has linear time complexity only when the array elements are integers bounded by small constant.
Previous algorithm may be improved if we stop binary search as soon as number of pair sums in binary search range decreases from O(N2) to O(N). Then we fill auxiliary array with these pair sums (this may be done with slightly modified two-pointers algorithm). And then we use quickselect algorithm to find Kth largest sum in this auxiliary array. All this does not improve worst-case complexity because we still need O(log R) binary search steps. What if we keep the quickselect part of this algorithm but (to get proper value range) we use something better than binary search?
We could estimate value range with the following trick: get every second element from each array and try to find the pair sum with rank k/4 for these half-arrays (using the same algorithm recursively). Obviously this should give some approximation for needed value range. And in fact slightly improved variant of this trick gives range containing only O(N) elements. This is proven in following paper: "Selection in X + Y and matrices with sorted rows and columns" by A. Mirzaian and E. Arjomandi. This paper contains detailed explanation of the algorithm, proof, complexity analysis, and pseudo-code for all parts of the algorithm except Quickselect. If linear worst-case complexity is required, Quickselect may be augmented with Median of medians algorithm.
This algorithm has complexity O(N). If one of the arrays is shorter than other array (M < N) we could assume that this shorter array is extended to size N with some very small elements so that all calculations in the algorithm use size of the largest array. We don't actually need to extract pairs with these "added" elements and feed them to quickselect, which makes algorithm a little bit faster but does not improve asymptotic complexity.
If k < N we could ignore all the array elements with index greater than k. In this case complexity is equal to O(k). If N < k < N(N-1) we just have better complexity than requested in OP. If k > N(N-1), we'd better solve the opposite problem: k'th smallest sum.
I uploaded simple C++11 implementation to ideone. Code is not optimized and not thoroughly tested. I tried to make it as close as possible to pseudo-code in linked paper. This implementation uses std::nth_element, which allows linear complexity only on average (not worst-case).
A completely different approach to find K'th sum in linear time is based on priority queue (PQ). One variation is to insert largest pair to PQ, then repeatedly remove top of PQ and instead insert up to two pairs (one with decremented index in one array, other with decremented index in other array). And take some measures to prevent inserting duplicate pairs. Other variation is to insert all possible pairs containing largest element of first array, then repeatedly remove top of PQ and instead insert pair with decremented index in first array and same index in second array. In this case there is no need to bother about duplicates.
OP mentions O(K log K) solution where PQ is implemented as max-heap. But in some cases (when array elements are evenly distributed integers with limited range and linear complexity is needed only on average, not worst-case) we could use O(1) time priority queue, for example, as described in this paper: "A Complexity O(1) Priority Queue for Event Driven Molecular Dynamics Simulations" by Gerald Paul. This allows O(K) expected time complexity.
Advantage of this approach is a possibility to provide first K elements in sorted order. Disadvantages are limited choice of array element type, more complex and slower algorithm, worse asymptotic complexity: O(K) > O(N).
EDIT: This does not work. I leave the answer, since apparently I am not the only one who could have this kind of idea; see the discussion below.
A counter-example is x = (2, 3, 6), y = (1, 4, 5) and k=3, where the algorithm gives 7 (3+4) instead of 8 (3+5).
Let x and y be the two arrays, sorted in decreasing order; we want to construct the K-th largest sum.
The variables are: i the index in the first array (element x[i]), j the index in the second array (element y[j]), and k the "order" of the sum (k in 1..K), in the sense that S(k)=x[i]+y[j] will be the k-th greater sum satisfying your conditions (this is the loop invariant).
Start from (i, j) equal to (0, 0): clearly, S(1) = x[0]+y[0].
for k from 1 to K-1, do:
if x[i+1]+ y[j] > x[i] + y[j+1], then i := i+1 (and j does not change) ; else j:=j+1
To see that it works, consider you have S(k) = x[i] + y[j]. Then, S(k+1) is the greatest sum which is lower (or equal) to S(k), and such as at least one element (i or j) changes. It is not difficult to see that exactly one of i or j should change.
If i changes, the greater sum you can construct which is lower than S(k) is by setting i=i+1, because x is decreasing and all the x[i'] + y[j] with i' < i are greater than S(k). The same holds for j, showing that S(k+1) is either x[i+1] + y[j] or x[i] + y[j+1].
Therefore, at the end of the loop you found the K-th greater sum.
tl;dr: If you look ahead and look behind at each iteration, you can start with the end (which is highest) and work back in O(K) time.
Although the insight underlying this approach is, I believe, sound, the code below is not quite correct at present (see comments).
Let's see: first of all, the arrays are sorted. So, if the arrays are a and b with lengths M and N, and as you have arranged them, the largest items are in slots M and N respectively, the largest pair will always be a[M]+b[N].
Now, what's the second largest pair? It's going to have perhaps one of {a[M],b[N]} (it can't have both, because that's just the largest pair again), and at least one of {a[M-1],b[N-1]}. BUT, we also know that if we choose a[M-1]+b[N-1], we can make one of the operands larger by choosing the higher number from the same list, so it will have exactly one number from the last column, and one from the penultimate column.
Consider the following two arrays: a = [1, 2, 53]; b = [66, 67, 68]. Our highest pair is 53+68. If we lose the smaller of those two, our pair is 68+2; if we lose the larger, it's 53+67. So, we have to look ahead to decide what our next pair will be. The simplest lookahead strategy is simply to calculate the sum of both possible pairs. That will always cost two additions, and two comparisons for each transition (three because we need to deal with the case where the sums are equal);let's call that cost Q).
At first, I was tempted to repeat that K-1 times. BUT there's a hitch: the next largest pair might actually be the other pair we can validly make from {{a[M],b[N]}, {a[M-1],b[N-1]}. So, we also need to look behind.
So, let's code (python, should be 2/3 compatible):
def kth(a,b,k):
M = len(a)
N = len(b)
if k > M*N:
raise ValueError("There are only %s possible pairs; you asked for the %sth largest, which is impossible" % M*N,k)
(ia,ib) = M-1,N-1 #0 based arrays
# we need this for lookback
nottakenindices = (0,0) # could be any value
nottakensum = float('-inf')
for i in range(k-1):
optionone = a[ia]+b[ib-1]
optiontwo = a[ia-1]+b[ib]
biggest = max((optionone,optiontwo))
#first deal with look behind
if nottakensum > biggest:
if optionone == biggest:
newnottakenindices = (ia,ib-1)
else: newnottakenindices = (ia-1,ib)
ia,ib = nottakenindices
nottakensum = biggest
nottakenindices = newnottakenindices
#deal with case where indices hit 0
elif ia <= 0 and ib <= 0:
ia = ib = 0
elif ia <= 0:
ib-=1
ia = 0
nottakensum = float('-inf')
elif ib <= 0:
ia-=1
ib = 0
nottakensum = float('-inf')
#lookahead cases
elif optionone > optiontwo:
#then choose the first option as our next pair
nottakensum,nottakenindices = optiontwo,(ia-1,ib)
ib-=1
elif optionone < optiontwo: # choose the second
nottakensum,nottakenindices = optionone,(ia,ib-1)
ia-=1
#next two cases apply if options are equal
elif a[ia] > b[ib]:# drop the smallest
nottakensum,nottakenindices = optiontwo,(ia-1,ib)
ib-=1
else: # might be equal or not - we can choose arbitrarily if equal
nottakensum,nottakenindices = optionone,(ia,ib-1)
ia-=1
#+2 - one for zero-based, one for skipping the 1st largest
data = (i+2,a[ia],b[ib],a[ia]+b[ib],ia,ib)
narrative = "%sth largest pair is %s+%s=%s, with indices (%s,%s)" % data
print (narrative) #this will work in both versions of python
if ia <= 0 and ib <= 0:
raise ValueError("Both arrays exhausted before Kth (%sth) pair reached"%data[0])
return data, narrative
For those without python, here's an ideone: http://ideone.com/tfm2MA
At worst, we have 5 comparisons in each iteration, and K-1 iterations, which means that this is an O(K) algorithm.
Now, it might be possible to exploit information about differences between values to optimise this a little bit, but this accomplishes the goal.
Here's a reference implementation (not O(K), but will always work, unless there's a corner case with cases where pairs have equal sums):
import itertools
def refkth(a,b,k):
(rightia,righta),(rightib,rightb) = sorted(itertools.product(enumerate(a),enumerate(b)), key=lamba((ia,ea),(ib,eb):ea+eb)[k-1]
data = k,righta,rightb,righta+rightb,rightia,rightib
narrative = "%sth largest pair is %s+%s=%s, with indices (%s,%s)" % data
print (narrative) #this will work in both versions of python
return data, narrative
This calculates the cartesian product of the two arrays (i.e. all possible pairs), sorts them by sum, and takes the kth element. The enumerate function decorates each item with its index.
The max-heap algorithm in the other question is simple, fast and correct. Don't knock it. It's really well explained too. https://stackoverflow.com/a/5212618/284795
Might be there isn't any O(k) algorithm. That's okay, O(k log k) is almost as fast.
If the last two solutions were at (a1, b1), (a2, b2), then it seems to me there are only four candidate solutions (a1-1, b1) (a1, b1-1) (a2-1, b2) (a2, b2-1). This intuition could be wrong. Surely there are at most four candidates for each coordinate, and the next highest is among the 16 pairs (a in {a1,a2,a1-1,a2-1}, b in {b1,b2,b1-1,b2-1}). That's O(k).
(No it's not, still not sure whether that's possible.)
[2, 3, 5, 8, 13]
[4, 8, 12, 16]
Merge the 2 arrays and note down the indexes in the sorted array. Here is the index array looks like (starting from 1 not 0)
[1, 2, 4, 6, 8]
[3, 5, 7, 9]
Now start from end and make tuples. sum the elements in the tuple and pick the kth largest sum.
public static List<List<Integer>> optimization(int[] nums1, int[] nums2, int k) {
// 2 * O(n log(n))
Arrays.sort(nums1);
Arrays.sort(nums2);
List<List<Integer>> results = new ArrayList<>(k);
int endIndex = 0;
// Find the number whose square is the first one bigger than k
for (int i = 1; i <= k; i++) {
if (i * i >= k) {
endIndex = i;
break;
}
}
// The following Iteration provides at most endIndex^2 elements, and both arrays are in ascending order,
// so k smallest pairs must can be found in this iteration. To flatten the nested loop, refer
// 'https://stackoverflow.com/questions/7457879/algorithm-to-optimize-nested-loops'
for (int i = 0; i < endIndex * endIndex; i++) {
int m = i / endIndex;
int n = i % endIndex;
List<Integer> item = new ArrayList<>(2);
item.add(nums1[m]);
item.add(nums2[n]);
results.add(item);
}
results.sort(Comparator.comparing(pair->pair.get(0) + pair.get(1)));
return results.stream().limit(k).collect(Collectors.toList());
}
Key to eliminate O(n^2):
Avoid cartesian product(or 'cross join' like operation) of both arrays, which means flattening the nested loop.
Downsize iteration over the 2 arrays.
So:
Sort both arrays (Arrays.sort offers O(n log(n)) performance according to Java doc)
Limit the iteration range to the size which is just big enough to support k smallest pairs searching.
In the book Introduction to the Design & Analysis of Algorithms, the following solution is proposed to the element uniqueness problem:
ALGORITHM UniqueElements(A[0 .. n-1])
// Determines whether all the elements in a given array are distinct
// Input: An array A[0 .. n-1]
// Output: Returns "true" if all the elements in A are distinct
// and false otherwise.
for i := 0 to n - 2 do
for j := i + 1 to n - 1 do
if A[i] = A[j] return false
return true
How can I compute the average cost (i.e. number of comparisons for a given n) for this algorithm? What is a reasonable assumption about the input?
If you don't know anything else about the input, then a reasonable assumption is that it's random. If so, and if the space of possible choices is large (e.g. the set of all real numbers), then the likelihood of two elements being the same is vanishingly small. (Mathematically, we say that the event of two randomly selected real numbers being distinct is almost sure.)
That means that your average case is equal to your worst case: you'll have to scan every element in the array to be sure that each one is distinct. Then the number of comparisons is n * (n - 1) / 2, or the sum of 1 ... n.
I think it's hard to talk about an average cost. The worst case cost is O(n2) and happens either when the repeated elements are towards the end of the array, for example something like this:
2 3 4 5 ... 1 1
Or when the array contains nothing but distinct elements.
The best case is when the array starts with two repeated elements, like this:
1 1 ...
In which case the cost is a single comparison. Another good case is when there exists an element near the beginning of the array that repeats at the end of the array, something like this:
2 3 4 1 ... 1
This will be (closer to) O(n).
The fact is the cost depends on the input, so you might as well assume you're going to always hit a worst case and try to find a better algorithm, maybe something based on sorting the array or on using hash tables, giving you O(nlog n) worst case and O(n) average case respectively.
Since you iterate twice over the array in a nested way, worst case cost should be O(n²)..
a closer look would show you that since you start second loop from the element after the one you are checking you have:
N-1 + (N-2) + (N-3) + (N-4) + (N-5) + .... + 1
comparisons so the exact average cost would be N*(N-1) / 2
According to your comment I think that you should assume that every element is uniformely chosen between the set of possible values.
This means that the element A[i] has the probability 1/n of being exactly a specified value. Starting from here you can do your considerations:
first of all you choose a whatever element of the array A[i]. What is the probability of having A[i] == A[i+1]? It's 1/n² since both elements are supposed to be random.
what is the probability of having A[i] == A[i+2]? You have 1/n * (n-1/n) * 1/n because you have respectively a specified element, anything except the specified one, and the same specified element
you can extend the argumentation over any element A[k] with k>i, then you add all probabilities and you will have which is the average probability of having two unique element in the array starting from a specified one.
you extend thing thing further considering that you can start from any A[i] with i = 0..l-1. Of course every different i will have different probabilities because array will be shorter as i increases.
NOTE: n is the number of different items that can be inserted into the array, not its length.
After this you can easily estimate your average comparison cost..
If you need an exact value for a given input length then this will work (thought it is overkill):
ALGORITHM complexity_counter_of_UniqueElements(A[0 .. n-1])
// Determines whether all the elements in a given array are distinct
// Input: An array A[0 .. n-1]
// Output: Returns "true" if all the elements in A are distinct
// and false otherwise.
counter acc = 0;
for i := 0 to n - 2 do
for j := i + 1 to n - 1 do
//if A[i] = A[j] return false
acc := 1 + acc
return acc
It is easy to see that this algorithm is O(nn) though, which is probably what you're interested in. The algorithm compares every element by every other element. If you created a table with the results of this the table would have to be at least ((nn)/2) to hold all of the results.
edit:
I see now what you were really asking.
You need to compute the probability that each comparison may result in a match. This depends on the size of your elements (things that live in A) and what kind of distribution they have.
Assuming a random distribution the chance that any two random A[x] == A[y] where x != y would be 1.0/(number of possible values of element).
P(n)
total_chance := 0.0
for i:= 0 to n - 2 do
for j := i + 1 to n - 1 do
this_chance := 1.0/(number_of_possible_values_of_element)
total_chance := total_chance + ((1-total_chance)*this_chance)
// This should be the the probability of the newly compared pair being equal weighted
// to account for the chance that it actually mattered (ie, hadn't found a match earlier)
return total_chance
O((1-P(n))nn), but P(n) is <= 1, so it is less than n*n